Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume? a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure. b) Dextran Dextran is a colloid, synthetic plasma expander that interferes with platelet aggregation and is not recommended for hemorrhagic shock. c) Lactated Ringers Lactated ringers is a crystalloid, not a colloid. d) Hypertonic Saline Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands
plasma volume?
a) Albumin
Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply,
and can cause congestive heart failure.
b) Dextran
Dextran is a colloid, synthetic plasma expander that interferes with
platelet aggregation and is not recommended for hemorrhagic shock.
c) Lactated Ringers
Lactated ringers is a crystalloid, not a colloid.
d) Hypertonic Saline
Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Albumin
Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply,
and can cause congestive heart failure.
by

Related questions

Which of the following solutions is hypotonic? a) 0.45% NaCl. Half-strength saline is hypotonic b) Lactated Ringer’s solution. Lactated Ringer’s is isotonic. c) 0.9% NaCl. Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) is isotonic. d) 5% NaCl. A solution that is 5% NaCl is hypertonic.

Description : Which of the following solutions is hypotonic? a) 0.45% NaCl. Half-strength saline is hypotonic b) Lactated Ringer’s solution. Lactated Ringer’s is isotonic. c) 0.9% NaCl. Normal saline (0.9% NaCl) is isotonic. d) 5% NaCl. A solution that is 5% NaCl is hypertonic.

Last Answer : a) 0.45% NaCl. Half-strength saline is hypotonic

All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic agent, should be given immediately for resuscitation from hemorrhagic shock, to increase cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to hypoperfused tissues. C. The use of colloid solutions or hypertonic saline solutions is contraindicated for treatment of hemorrhagic shock. D. In hemorrhagic shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Description : All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic ... shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Hemorrhagic shock is associated with a contraction of the interstitial fluid compartment because of precapillary vasoconstriction and reabsorption of interstitial fluid ... definitive evidence that such solutions are better than standard crystalloid solutions is lacking

Which of the following statements are true of elevated–anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric acids may lead to this form of acidosis. C. Copious diarrhea does not produce this condition. D. Rapid volume expansion may produce this form of acidosis. E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of elevated-anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric ... E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: An elevated anion gap may be produced by lactic acidosis from shock or by retention of inorganic acids from uremia. Lactated Ringer's solution rapidly corrects the ... . Bicarbonate loss from diarrhea and dilutional acidosis are non-anion gap types of metabolic acidosis

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except: A. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins B. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours C. It is nonpyrogenic D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Description : As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except: A. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins B. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours C. It is nonpyrogenic D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Last Answer : D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: A. Congestive heart failure B. Extensive burns C. Mutilating injuries D. Endotoxin shock

Description : Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: A. Congestive heart failure B. Extensive burns C. Mutilating injuries D. Endotoxin shock

Last Answer : A. Congestive heart failure

In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia. b) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock results from the failure of a heart as a pump. c) Hypovolemic In hypovolemic shock, there is a decrease in the intravascular volume. d) Septic In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

Description : In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, ... intravascular volume. d) Septic In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

Last Answer : a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia.

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Contribution of albumin to colloid osmotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 90%

Description : Contribution of albumin to colloid osmotic pressure of plasma is about (A) 10% (B) 50% (C) 80% (D) 90%

Last Answer : Answer : C

Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension. b) Dopamine (Intropin) Dopamine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. c) Epinephrine (adrenaline) Epinephrine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Description : Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage ... increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Last Answer : a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension.

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

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Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

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Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutics plasma concentration in (a) Smokers (b) Congestive heart failure patients (c) Those receiving erythromycin (d) Those receiving cimetidine

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Last Answer : Ans: A

The dose of digoxin in congestive heart failure is adjusted by monitoring: A. Electrocardiogram B. Heart rate and symptoms of CHF C. Blood pressure D. Plasma digoxin levels

Description : The dose of digoxin in congestive heart failure is adjusted by monitoring: A. Electrocardiogram B. Heart rate and symptoms of CHF C. Blood pressure D. Plasma digoxin levels

Last Answer : B. Heart rate and symptoms of CH

Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

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In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

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Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II patients demonstrate FEV1 between > 30% and 80% c) I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure

Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and diaphoresis b. Moderate shock (20%–40% blood volume): All of the above plus tachycardia and hypotension c. Severe shock (> 40% blood volume): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above

Description : Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and ... ): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above

Last Answer : Answer: a, c PHYSICAL FINDINGS IN HEMORRHAGIC SHOCK* Moderate Mild (40% Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Pallor Pallor Pallor Cool extremities Cool extremities Cool extremities ... hypotension Mental status changes * Alcohol or drug intoxication may alter physical findings

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial response to restore intravascular volume b. With larger volume hemorrhagic shock deterioration of normal cellular transmembrane potential occurs resulting in an increase in extracellular sodium and water c. The accumulation of anaerobic metabolites override normal homeostatic vasomotor tone and contribute to the maladaptive vasodilatation d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

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Thromboxanes cause (A) Vasodilation (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Platelet aggregation (D) All of these

Description : Thromboxanes cause (A) Vasodilation (B) Bronchoconstriction (C) Platelet aggregation (D) All of these

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When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Last Answer : Ans: A

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Description : Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of ... is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Last Answer : a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.

Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after ... fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.

Last Answer : a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, ... Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia. b) Hypotension Hypotension is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia. c) Elevated temperature The rise in temperature is actually a late sign that develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Description : Which of the following manifestations is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia? a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant ... develops rapidly. d) Oliguria Scant urinary output is a later sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Last Answer : a) Tachycardia (heart rate above 150 beats per minute) Tachycardia is often the earliest sign of malignant hyperthermia.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Description :  Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

Description : Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 ... by surfactant action on the colonic epithelium, resulting in mixing of aqueous and fatty substances.

Last Answer : a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

Monro-Kellie hypothesis refers to a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of the others.

Description : Monro-Kellie hypothesis refers to a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any ... the patient is wakeful but devoid of conscious content, without cognitive or affective mental function.

Last Answer : a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of the others.

Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. c) Spherocyte A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes ... blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Last Answer : a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

The following drug is used for short-term control of emergency heart failure, but not for long-term treatment of congestive heart failure: A. Digoxin B. Ramipril C. Dobutamine D. Spironolactone

Description : The following drug is used for short-term control of emergency heart failure, but not for long-term treatment of congestive heart failure: A. Digoxin B. Ramipril C. Dobutamine D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : C. Dobutamine

Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Description : Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Last Answer : B. Dobutamine

Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β 1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Description : Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β 1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Last Answer : B. Dobutamine

One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (B) Contraction of uterus (C) Decrease of gastric secretion (D) Relieving osthma

Description : One of the important functions of prostacyclins is (A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation (B) Contraction of uterus (C) Decrease of gastric secretion (D) Relieving osthma

Last Answer : Answer : A

Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except (A) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure (C) Uterine contraction (D) Platelet aggregation

Description : Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except (A) Gastric acid secretion (B) Blood pressure (C) Uterine contraction (D) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Answer : C

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Description : The action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor is (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bradycardia (c) EDRF release (d) Platelet aggregation

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2

Description : The following prostanoid is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation (a) Prostacyclin (b) Prostaglandin E2 (c) Prostaglandin D2 (d) Thromboxane A2

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following regarding thromboxane A2 is true? C A. It degrades basement membranes B. It is produced via the lipoxygenase pathway C. It stimulates platelet aggregation D. None of these

Description : Which of the following regarding thromboxane A2 is true? C A. It degrades basement membranes B. It is produced via the lipoxygenase pathway C. It stimulates platelet aggregation D. None of these

Last Answer : It stimulates platelet aggregation

All of the following are true regarding platelet-activating factor (PAF) EXCEPT: C A. Induces platelet aggregation B. Stimulates platelet secretion C. It is a preformed molecule present in various cells D. None of these

Description : All of the following are true regarding platelet-activating factor (PAF) EXCEPT: C A. Induces platelet aggregation B. Stimulates platelet secretion C. It is a preformed molecule present in various cells D. None of these

Last Answer : It is a preformed molecule present in various cells