Which of the following medications is categorized as a loop diuretic? a) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure.

Which of the following medications is categorized as a loop
diuretic?
a) Furosemide (Lasix)
Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure.
b) Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Chlorothiazide is categorized as a thiazide diuretic.
c) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
Chlorothalidone is categorized as a thiazide diuretic.
d) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Spironolactone is categorized as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Furosemide (Lasix)
Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure.
by

Related questions

Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of potassium from the body. c) Chlorothiazide (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.

Description : Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of ... (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.

Last Answer : a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema

Following loop diuretic is a phynoxy acetic acid derivative (a) Furosemide (b) Bumetanide (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) All of the above

Description : Following loop diuretic is a phynoxy acetic acid derivative (a) Furosemide (b) Bumetanide (c) Ethacrynic acid (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.

Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult. b) Teenagers Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific, and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health. c) Children In general, the compliance of children depends on the compliance of their parents. d) Middle-aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Description : Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are ... -aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Last Answer : a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.

Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Description : Intravenous furosemide promptly mitigates dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by: A. Producing bronchodilatation B. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload. D. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Last Answer : C. Increasing venous capacitance and reducing cardiac preload.

The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

Description : When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field ... . d) urgent care. Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.

Last Answer : a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

Of the following hemolytic anemias, which is categorized as inherited? a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia. b) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an acquired anemia. c) Cold agglutinin disease Cold agglutinin disease is an acquired anemia. d) Hypersplenism Hypersplenism results in an acquired hemolytic anemia.

Description : Of the following hemolytic anemias, which is categorized as inherited? a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia. b ... is an acquired anemia. d) Hypersplenism Hypersplenism results in an acquired hemolytic anemia.

Last Answer : a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia.

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Description : An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics ... Medications such as barbiturates are given to the patient with IICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

Last Answer : a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Last Answer : Ans: A

At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide

The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Description : The most appropriate measure to overcome diminished responsiveness to furosemide after its longterm use is: A. Switching over to parenteral administration of furosemide B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic C. Addition of acetazolamide D. Potassium supplementation

Last Answer : B. Addition of a thiazide diuretic

The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Description : The following diuretic reduces positive free water clearance but does not affect negative free water clearance: A. Hydroflumethiazide B. Furosemide C. Ethacrynic acid D. Mannitol

Last Answer : A. Hydroflumethiazide

Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Description : Select the diuretic which is similar in efficacy and pattern of electrolyte excretion to furosemide, but is 40 times more potent dose to dose: A. Piretanide B. Bumetanide C. Xipamide D. Metolazone

Last Answer : B. Bumetanide

The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Last Answer : C. Mannitol

Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic that is most effective in acute congestive glaucoma: A. Indapamide B. Amiloride C. Mannitol D. Furosemide

Last Answer : C. Mannitol

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Description : Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs ... to cause immunosuppression. d) Antineoplastic agents Antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.

Last Answer : a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. b) Sucralfate (Carafate) Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. c) Famotidine (Pepcid) Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Description : Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine ... antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Last Answer : a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells.

Of the following categories of medications, which is used in combination with bismuth salts to eradicate Helicobacter pylori? a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate H. pylori. b) Antacids Antacids are given to manage gastric acidity. c) Proton pump inhibitors Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease acid secretion. d) Histamine-2 receptor antagonists Histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given to decrease the acid secretion in the stomach.

Description : Of the following categories of medications, which is used in combination with bismuth salts to eradicate Helicobacter pylori? a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate ... antagonists Histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given to decrease the acid secretion in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate H. pylori.

For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Description : For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated ... make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent. c) Clopidigrel (Plavix) Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Description : Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a ... placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Last Answer : a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin. b) reduce the perception of pain. Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain. c) inhibit the transmission of pain. Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain. d) inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli. Morphine and other opioid medications inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli by mimicking enkephalin and endorphin.

Description : Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking ... opioid medications inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli by mimicking enkephalin and endorphin.

Last Answer : a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin.

The aim of genomic medicine is a) improving predictions about individuals’ susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which treatments or medications are likely to be most effective or harmful are the focus of genomic medicine. b) reproduction The focus of genomic medicine is broader than the reproduction of cells. c) cure of disease The focus of genomic medicine is broader than the cure of disease. d) cloning Genomic medicine is gene-based health care.

Description : The aim of genomic medicine is a) improving predictions about individuals' susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which ... broader than the cure of disease. d) cloning Genomic medicine is gene-based health care.

Last Answer : a) improving predictions about individuals’ susceptibility to diseases Predictions regarding the time of their onset, their extent and eventual severity as well as which treatments or medications are likely to be most effective or harmful are the focus of genomic medicine.

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Description : Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Last Answer : C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Which of the following terms indicates the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction of the heart? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out (ejected) with each contraction of the heart (heart beat). Stroke volume times heart rate equals cardiac output.

Description : Which of the following terms indicates the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction of the heart? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out ( ... d) Preload Preload is the pressure created by a volume of blood within a ventricle before contraction.

Last Answer : a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out (ejected) with each contraction of the heart (heart beat). Stroke volume times heart rate equals cardiac output.

Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient’s level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Description : Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient's level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with ... in support groups. Participation in support groups indicates some degree of comfort with prognosis.

Last Answer : a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) Annuloplasty Annuloplasty refers to repair of a cardiac valve’s outer ring. c) Chordoplasty Chordoplasty refers to repair of the chordae tendonae of atroventricular valve leaflets. d) Valvuloplasty Valvuloplasty is a general term that refers to repair of a stenosed or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Description : Which of the following procedures most specifically describes splitting or separating fused cardiac valve leaflets? a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis. b) ... or regurgitant cardiac valve by commisurotomy, annuloplasty, leaflet repair, and/or chordoplasty.

Last Answer : a) Commisurotomy Commisurotomy is frequently used for mitral stenosis.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Which of the following statements reflect a goal of rehabilitation for the patient with an MI: a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated to extending and improving quality of life.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect a goal of rehabilitation for the patient with an MI: a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated ... event An immediate objective of rehabilitation of the MI patient is to prevent another cardiac event.

Last Answer : a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated to extending and improving quality of life.