When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the
nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is
a) malignant.
A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification,
indicates squamous cell carcinoma.
b) normal.
A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal.
c) probably normal.
A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal.
d) suspicious.
A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) malignant.
A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification,
indicates squamous cell carcinoma.
by

Related questions

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

.What is the most common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral cavity: A. Ameloblastoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Osteosarcom

Description : .What is the most common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral cavity: A. Ameloblastoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Osteosarcom

Last Answer : B. Squamous cell carcinoma

For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older. b) Mammography Mammography is recommended for health screening for women aged 40 years and older. c) Cholesterol and lipid profile Cholesterol and lipid profile is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. d) Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Description : For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as ... Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Last Answer : a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older.

When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Description : When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the ... or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Last Answer : a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. b) Bronchioalveolar carcinoma Bronchioalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow-growing. c) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. d) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Description : Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that ... cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Last Answer : a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

Description : When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field ... . d) urgent care. Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.

Last Answer : a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

Description : When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi's sarcoma. Kaposi's sarcoma is ... syphilis. A painless chancre or ulcerated lesion is a typical finding in the patient with syphilis.

Last Answer : a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases ... in women who consume even one drink daily and doubles among women drinking three drinks daily.

Last Answer : a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled. b) clean. Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection. c) contaminated. Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection. d) dirty. A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

The nurse who admitted the patient recognizes that Billroth II procedure means A. Enterostomy B. Esophagojejunostomy C. Gastroduodenostomy D. Gastrojejunostomy

Description : The nurse who admitted the patient recognizes that Billroth II procedure means A. Enterostomy B. Esophagojejunostomy C. Gastroduodenostomy D. Gastrojejunostomy

Last Answer : D. Gastrojejunostomy

The nurse who effectively analyzes the communication process recognizes the messages are A. Connotative and denotative B. Learned and unlearned C. Verbal and non-verbal D. Native as well as foreign

Description : The nurse who effectively analyzes the communication process recognizes the messages are A. Connotative and denotative B. Learned and unlearned C. Verbal and non-verbal D. Native as well as foreign

Last Answer : C. Verbal and non-verbal

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be: a) Continued observation. b) Endometrial biopsy. c) Hysterectomy. d) Pelvic ultrasonography. e) Laparoscopy.

Description : A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be: a) Continued observation. b) Endometrial biopsy. c) Hysterectomy. d) Pelvic ultrasonography. e) Laparoscopy.

Last Answer : continued observation is required in such a case as the patient is stable

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or return to the ED if the patient a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Description : Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or ... for short periods of time. Difficulty in waking the patient should be reported or treated immediately.

Last Answer : a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) Interpretation Interpretation is used to determine the significance of data that is gathered. c) Inferencing Inferences are used by the nurse to draw conclusions. d) Explanation Explanation is the justification of actions or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

Description : Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) ... or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

Last Answer : a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data.

.The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is, A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ B. Carcinoma of the lips

Description : .The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is, A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ B. Carcinoma of the lips

Last Answer : A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus

Description : The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus 

Last Answer : ANSWER: B  

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Can social services make me let them do a pap smear on my 13 year old daughter ?

Description : Can social services make me let them do a pap smear on my 13 year old daughter ?

Last Answer : Is there a specific reason?

Who shouldn't get a pap smear?

Description : Who shouldn't get a pap smear?

Last Answer : It takes five minutes. If you have a cervix, get it checked. Seriously.

Where can I get a pap smear?

Description : Where can I get a pap smear?

Last Answer : Do you have insurance? Are you a student? Is cost a factor at all? These things would make a difference in a recomendation.

Parental knowledge for pap smear?

Description : Parental knowledge for pap smear?

Last Answer : I know you can go to Planned Parenthood. You could probably go to your regular doctor without them telling your parents (call them and ask), but they will find out if you use your insurance.

What are the symptoms of an abnormal pap smear?

Description : What are the symptoms of an abnormal pap smear?

Last Answer : A pap smear is a swab test of your cervix to test your cells for dysplasia. As there may not be symptoms of an abnormal pap smear, bleeding or spotting can be associated with an abnormal pap smear.

Does it mean I have cancer if I have received an abnormal pap smear?

Description : Does it mean I have cancer if I have received an abnormal pap smear?

Last Answer : No, this does not mean that you have cancer. Rather, you may have an infection. In any case, an abnormal pap smear should be followed up by another one just to be sure.

Pap smear?

Description : Pap smear?

Last Answer : DefinitionA Pap smear is an examination under the microscope of cells scraped from the tip of the cervix. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus (womb) that opens at the top of the vagina. ... the cervix with a wooden or plastic spatula, then inserting a small brush that looks like a pipe clean

58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two weeks. The most essential investigation would be: a) Colposcopy. b) Pap smear. c) Cone biopsy. d) D & C (dilatation & Curettage). e) Hysteroscopy

Description : 58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two weeks. The most essential investigation would be: a) Colposcopy. b) Pap smear. c) Cone biopsy. d) D & C (dilatation & Curettage). e) Hysteroscopy

Last Answer : d) D & C (dilatation & Curettage).

A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past three months. Your first investigation should be: a) Dilatation & Curettage. b) Cone biopsy of cervix. c) Pap smear. d) Colposcopy. e) Laparoscopy.

Description : A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past three months. Your first investigation should be: a) Dilatation & Curettage. b) Cone biopsy of cervix. c) Pap smear. d) Colposcopy. e) Laparoscopy.

Last Answer : c) Pap smear.

The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are:** A. Palate and gingivae B. Tongue and floor of the mouth C. Tongue and palate

Description : The MOST common sites for squamous carcinoma in the oral cavity are:** A. Palate and gingivae B. Tongue and floor of the mouth C. Tongue and palate

Last Answer : B. Tongue and floor of the mouth

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

Which of the following IS NOT RECOGNISED on HIV patients: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. HIV gingivitis C. Osteosarcoma D. External lymphoma E. Kaposi sarcoma

Description : Which of the following IS NOT RECOGNISED on HIV patients: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. HIV gingivitis C. Osteosarcoma D. External lymphoma E. Kaposi sarcoma

Last Answer : C. Osteosarcoma

A patient states that for ALMOST a year now she has had a rubbery, firm, painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland. This MOST likely is: A. Mucocele B. Lymph node C. Benign mixed tumour D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Sialolith with encapsulations

Description : A patient states that for ALMOST a year now she has had a rubbery, firm, painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland. This MOST likely is: A. Mucocele B. Lymph node C. Benign mixed tumour D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Sialolith with encapsulations

Last Answer : C. Benign mixed tumour