The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis
about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following
statements?
a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising
out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen,
increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation,
and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.
b) Increase fiber in the diet.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include increasing dietary
calcium and vitamin D intake,
walking or exercising out of doors, smoking cessation, consuming
alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a
regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.
c) Reduce stress.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising
out of doors, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking
cessation, consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation,
and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.
d) Decrease the intake of vitamin A and D.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include increasing dietary
calcium and vitamin D intake,
walking or exercising out of doors, smoking cessation, consuming
alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a
regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors.
Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising
out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen,
increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation,
and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.
by

Related questions

Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Description : Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, ... of osteoporosis, low initial bone mass, and contributing co-existing medical conditions and medications.

Last Answer : a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common ... 30 minutes of exposure involving cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary organ systems.

Last Answer : a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a “peakless” basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering glargine (Lantus) insulin it is very important to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a peakless basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a ... action Glargine is a peakless basal insulin that is absorbed very slowly over a 24-hour period.

Last Answer : a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering ... to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood ... be able to resume previous methods for control of diabetes when the stress is resolved.

Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or return to the ED if the patient a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Description : Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or ... for short periods of time. Difficulty in waking the patient should be reported or treated immediately.

Last Answer : a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.

Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi-mushy. With a descending colostomy, the feces are semi-mushy. c) mushy. With a transverse colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi- ... colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

Last Answer : a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle including a) a low fat, low cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise. Health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle including a low fat, low cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise.

Description : Health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle including a) a low fat, low cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise. Health promotion ... encouraging a healthy lifestyle including a low fat, low cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise.

Last Answer : a) a low fat, low cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise. Health promotion efforts to decrease the risk for ischemic stroke involve encouraging a healthy lifestyle including a low fat, low cholesterol diet, and increasing exercise.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.

Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and ... analgesics. Topical analgesics such as capsaicin and methylsalicylate may be used for pain management.

Last Answer : a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Description : The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression ... contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.

Last Answer : a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Description : Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to ... . Such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Last Answer : a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea is the patient’s subjective statement of difficulty breathing. c) Orthopnea Orthopnea is the inability of the patient to breathe except in the upright (sitting) position. d) Thromboangitis obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger’s disease.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is ... obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger's disease.

Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Description : Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. ... Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.

Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

61. A client with gout asks the nurse what food must be avoided so that the family can provide support. Which food has the highest in purine content and must be excluded from the dietary plan?

Description : 61. A client with gout asks the nurse what food must be avoided so that the family can provide support. Which food has the highest in purine content and must be excluded from the dietary plan?

Last Answer : D. Liver

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases ... in women who consume even one drink daily and doubles among women drinking three drinks daily.

Last Answer : a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose ... islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Last Answer : a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Last Answer : a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, “Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies”. Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. Clarify information on purpose, anticipate benefits and consequences of total laryngectomy B. Explain that total laryngectomy results in loss of ability to verbally communicate C. Arrange a visit to a post-laryngectomy client who effectively uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Description : Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies . Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. ... uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Last Answer : D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to: a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%.

Description : The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to: a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention ... the energy source is seen after a burn injury; interventions are instituted to decrease catabolism.

Last Answer : a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback. b) Kegel exercises Kegel exercises are pelvic floor exercises that strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle. c) Habit training Habit training is used to try to keep the patient dry by strictly adhering to a toileting schedule and may be successful with stress, urge, or functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Description : Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge ... functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Last Answer : a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not ... Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to orthopnea that occurs only at night.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position