Description : Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Ketamine; all are true except A. Induction of anesthesia by IV route B. Induction of anesthesia … C. Supplementation of sedation... D. Decrease cerebral blood flow
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support
Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...
Description : Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Mallampati grade suggests difficult intubation A. grade I B. grade II C. grade IV D. All of the above
Description : Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except A. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. B. Patient presented with bowel obstruction C) Morbid Obesity Patients D) Pregnancy
Description : The following are the classical hemolytic transfusion reaction in general anesthesia except A. Hypotension B. Wheezing C. Hemoglobinuria D. bradycardia
Description : Signs of low perfusion include all except A. hypotension B. tachycardia C. High Urine Output D. Poor Capillary refill
Description : ASA standard monitors include all except A. Pulse oximeter B. CVP C. NIBP cuff D. ECG
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure
Description : The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect
Last Answer : A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morph
Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.
Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.
Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.
Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit
Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation
Description : In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine: A. Mydriasis B. Marked respiratory depression C. Cyanosis D. Fall in blood pressure
Last Answer : A. Mydriasis
Description : Chance of a dog dying from anesthesia?
Last Answer : Did you vet this question? 1 in 233.
Description : The mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 160 80 is A. 90 mmHg B. 100 mmHg C. 110 mmHg D. 120 mmHg
Description : In 70 kg patient one unit of platelet concentrate should increase platelet count A. 2000 - 5000 mm3 B. 5000 - 10000 mm3 C. 10000 - 20000 mm3 D. More than 20000 mm3
Description : Factor at increase risk of aspiration includes A. drinking clear fluids 8 hours before operation B. gastro esophageal reflux C. chewing gum D. Two hours preoperative oral clear fluid administration
Description : Premedication that can be given A. Anxiolysis B. Anti- emetic C. Antacid D. all of the above
Description : ASA III is A. normal, healthy patient B. Patient with mild, well controlled systemic disease C. Patient with sever systemic disease that limits activity D. Patient with sever life threatening disease
Description : Body Mass Index= A. Height in centimeters Weight (kg) B. Weight (kg) Height (M2) C. Height (M2) Weight (kg) D. Weight (kg) Height in centimeters
Description : Intravenous regional anesthesia is more commonly used for operations of A. Neck surgeries B. Lower abdomen C. Upper limbs D. Lower limbs
Description : Depolarizing block may be done by A. Atracurium B. Neostegmin C. Succinylcholine D. rocuronuim
Description : Balanced General Anesthesia includes A. Skeletal muscle relaxant B. Loss of consciousness C. Analgesia D. All of the above
Description : Predictors of difficult intubation include A. Short muscular neck B. Prominent upper incisor C. Protruding mandible D. All of the above
Description : In a lower segment caesarean section, which of the following techniques of anesthesia is desirable A. Spinal anesthesia B. Caudal anesthesia C. Combined Spinal Epidural D. General anesthesia
Description : The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on ... have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.
Last Answer : a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing.
Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion
Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression
Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route
Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin
Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is (a) Nausea and vomiting (b) Loose motions (c) Constipation (d) Urticaria
Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria
Last Answer : B. Loose motions
Description : The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect
Last Answer : A. Involuntary movements
Description : Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting
Last Answer : B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect
Description : The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension
Last Answer : B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding
Description : Serum a lka l ine phosphatase leve l increases in (A) Hypothyroidism (B) Carcinoma of prostate (C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Myocardial ischemia
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : In early stages of myocardial ischemia the most sensitive indicator is the measurement of the activity of (A) CPK (B) SGPT (C) SGOT (D) LDH
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.
Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%
Description : When the nurse observes that the postoperative patient demonstrates a constant low level of oxygen saturation, although the patient's breathing appears normal, the nurse identifies that the patient may ... , and cardiac arrest. d) Anemic Anemic hypoxemia results from blood loss during surgery.
Last Answer : a) Subacute Supplemental oxygen may be indicated.
Description : Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone ? (a) Analgesia (b) Respiratory depression (c) Sedation (d) Miosis
Description : The greatest threat from morphine poisoning is (a) Renal shutdown (b) Paralysis of spinal cord (c) Respiratory depression (d) Cardiovascular collapse (e) None of the above
Description : Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone: A. Analgesia B. Respiratory depression C. Sedation D. Miosis
Last Answer : C. Sedation
Description : regarding paracetamol toxicity: - Not toxic if dose exceed 150-180 mg - Cause vomiting and neuropathy - Therapeutic effect after 4 hours - Use Deferoxamine -the liver enzyme reach the max. Level 4-6 hours after ingestion
Last Answer : the liver enzyme reach the max. Level 4-6 hours after ingestion
Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.
Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.
Description : Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting. b) Left lower quadrant pain Pain is generally felt in the ... may be present with appendicitis. d) High fever Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.
Last Answer : a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.
Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements
Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements
Description : Nausea Vomiting
Last Answer : Nausea is not a disease. Neither is vomiting. Both are symptoms that can be caused by many medical conditions such as motion sickness, migraine, food poisoning, pregnancy, infection and overeating among others ... and it can be really dangerous. That's why it is important to replace the lost fluids.
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release
Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression