Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine
Last Answer : A. Glycopyrrolate
Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm
Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events
Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscannic drug for use before and during surgery because (a) It is potent and fast acting (b) It has no central action (c) It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The most efficacious inhibitor of catecholamine synthesis in the body is (a) a - methyl – p - tyrosine (b) a - methyldopa (c) a - methyl - norepinephrine (d) Pyrogallol
Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP (a) Noradrenaline (b) Isoprenaline (c) Mephentermine (d) Isoxsuprine
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on ... the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Dihydrotachysterol (c) Ergocalciferol (d) Etidronate (e) Norgestrel
Description : Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Flecainide
Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine
Description : Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of which one of the following types of drugs ? (a) ACE inhibitors (b) Alpha-receptor blockers (c) Arteriolar dilators (d) ß1 – selective receptor blockers (e) Nonselective ß - blockers
Description : Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in anaphylaxis associated with bronchospasm and hypotension ? (a) Cortisone (b) Epinephrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Norepinephrine (e) Phenylephrine
Description : Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Postoperative bladder spasm (e) Traveler’s diarrhea
Description : The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine
Last Answer : D. Ranitidine
Description : Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication: A. Is routine except in the presence of contraindications B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetised with ether C. Should be made only in combination with atropine D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperativel
Last Answer : D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperatively
Description : Currently barbiturates are primarily used as: A. Hypnotic B. Sedative C. Antiepileptic D. Preanaesthetic medicant
Last Answer : C. Antiepileptic
Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. It has no central action
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.
Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.
Description : Phenylephrine (a) Mimics the transmitter at post-synaptic receptors (b) Displaces transmitter from axonal terminal (c) Inhibits synthesis of transmitter (d) None of the above
Description : Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline (a) Bronchodilation (b) Lipolysis (c) Muscle tremor (d) Mydriasis
Description : Propanolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with (a) Chronic neurotic disorer (b) Schizopherenia (c) Short-term stressful situation (d) Endogenous depression
Description : The ß-adrenergic blocker which possesses both ß1 selectivity as well as intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is (a) Alprenolol (b) Atenolol (c) Acebutolol (d) Metoprolol
Description : Which of the following is true of sildenafil (a) It enhances sexul enjoyment in normal men (b) It delays ejaculation (c) It is indicated only for treatment of erectile dysfunction in men (d) It blocks cavernosal a2 adrenoceptors
Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because (a) It is the only orally active a blocker (b) It improves plasma lipid profile (c) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release (d) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy
Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an a adrenergic blocker is (a) Phenoxybenzamine (b) Ergotamine (c) Dihydroergotoxine (d) Tolazoline
Description : Guanethidine inhibits (a) Synthesis of transmitter (b) Metabolism of transmitter (c) Release of transmitter (d) Displacement of transmitter from axonal terminal
Description : Vasoconstrictors should not be used in (a) Neurogenic shock (b) Haemorrhagic shock (c) Secondary shock (d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia
Description : Continuous exposure of ctecholaminesensitive cells and tissues to adrenergic agonists causes a progressive diminition in their capacity to respond, this phenomenon is called as (a) Refractoriness (b) Desensitization (c) Tachyphylaxis (d) All of the above
Description : Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature (a) Potency (b) Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Duration of action (d) Producing both a and ß adrenergic effects
Description : Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability
Description : Noradrenaline is administered by (a) Subcutaneous injection (b) Intramuscular injection (c) Slow intravenous infusion (d) All of the above routes
Description : Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except (a) Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis (b) Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic ß cells (c) Augmenting glucagons secretion from pancreatic a cells (d) Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization
Description : a2–adrenergic receptors are associated with following except (a) Increase in phospholipase C activity (b) Increase in potassium channel conductance (c) Decrease in calcium channel conductance (d) Increase in adenylyl cyclase activity
Description : Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed (a) Cutaneous (b) Mucosal (c) Renal (d) Skeletal muscle
Description : A sympathomimetic amine that acts almost exclusively by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve endings is (a) Ephedrine (b) Dopamine (c) Isoprenaline (d) Tyramine
Description : Choose the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Norepinephrine > isoproterenol > epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine < epinephrine > isoproterenol (c) Epinephrine = norepinephrine >> isoproterenol (d) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine
Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings (a) By depolarizing the axonal membrane (b) By mobilizing Ca2+ (c) By a nonexocytotic process (d) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors
Description : Select the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists (a) Isoproterenol > epinephrine = norepinephrine (b) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine (c) Isoproterenol = epinephrine = norepinephrine (d) Epinephrine = norepinephrine > isoproterenol
Description : Atropine is contraindicated in (a) Cyclic AMP (b) Inositol trisphosphate (c) Diacyl glycerols (d) G protein
Description : The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is (a) Neostigmine (b) Physostigmine (c) Pilocarpine (d) Methacholine
Description : The most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is (a) Atropine sulfate (b) Homatropine (c) Cyclopentolate (d) Tropicamide
Description : Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action ? (a) Atropine (b) Homatropine (c) Tropicamide (d) Cyclopentolate
Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity
Description : a1 – receptors are coupled with _______ G protein. (a) Gs (b) Gi (c) Gq (d) Go
Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/ antispasmodic effect on the following muscle (a) Intestinal (b) Ureteric (c) Bronchial (d) Layngeal
Description : The cardiac muscarinic receptors (a) Are of the M1 subtype (b) Are of the M2 subtype (c) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine (d) Function through the PIP2 ? IP3/DAG pathway
Description : Muscarinic cholinergic receptors (a) Are located only on parasympathetically innervated effector cells (b) Mediate responses by opening an instrinsic Na+ ion channel (c) Are present on vascular endothelium which has no cholinergic nerve supply (d) Predominate in the autonomic ganglia
Description : Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves ? (a) Iris muscles (b) Ciliary muscle (c) Sweat glands (d) Splenic capsule