All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C. The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D. Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A.  There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B.  Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C.  The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D.  Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.
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Answer: C  DISCUSSION: Neurogenic shock occurs when severe head injury, spinal cord injury, or pharmacologic sympathetic blockade leads to sympathetic denervation and loss of vasomotor tone. Both arteriolar and venous vessels dilate, causing reduced systemic vascular resistance and a great increase in venous capacitance. The patient's extremities appear warm and dry, in contrast to those of a patient in cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock. Tachycardia is frequently observed, though the classic description of neurogenic shock includes bradycardia and hypotension. Volume administration to fill the expanded intravascular compartment is the mainstay of treatment. The use of alpha-adrenergic agonist is infrequently necessary to treat neurogenic shock
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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a adrenergic activity b. The renal and mesenteric vasoconstrictive effects of norepinephrine complicate and sometimes restrict its use c. The apparent paradoxical use of vasodilators, such as nitroprusside, in shock is indicated as a means to augment cardiac function d. Isoproterenol with its potent b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

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Last Answer : Answer: a After wounding, there is transient vasoconstriction mediated by catecholamines, thromboxane, and prostaglandin F2 (PGF2a). This period of vasoconstriction lasts for only five to ten minutes. Once ... and mast cells and enhance the egress of cells and substrate into the wound and tissue

The complement system consists of a series of serum proteins that exist in a quiescent or very low-level state of activation in the uninfected host. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning complement activation? a. The alternate (properdin) pathway of complement activation can occur directly through contact with fungal or bacterial cell wall compounds b. Complement component fragments may serve to decrease vascular permeability c. Excessive complement activation can produce deleterious effects d. Fragments of certain complement components serve as chemoattractants to additional cellular components of the host defense mechanism

Description : The complement system consists of a series of serum proteins that exist in a quiescent or very low-level state of activation in the uninfected host. Which of the following ... certain complement components serve as chemoattractants to additional cellular components of the host defense mechanism

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Complement activation can occur through either classic or alternate (properdin) pathways, both of which eventuate in deposition of terminal complement pathway components on the ... and release of lysosomal enzymes that can directly damage certain target tissues, such as the lung

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

Which of the following statements are true of elevated–anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric acids may lead to this form of acidosis. C. Copious diarrhea does not produce this condition. D. Rapid volume expansion may produce this form of acidosis. E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of elevated-anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric ... E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: An elevated anion gap may be produced by lactic acidosis from shock or by retention of inorganic acids from uremia. Lactated Ringer's solution rapidly corrects the ... . Bicarbonate loss from diarrhea and dilutional acidosis are non-anion gap types of metabolic acidosis

A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Description : A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral ... use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Description : Ergotamine relieves migraine by: A. Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors B. Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors C. Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Last Answer : D. Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Which of the following statements about head injury and concomitant hyponatremia are true? A. There are no primary alterations in cardiovascular signs. B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure may be masked by the hyponatremia. C. Oliguric renal failure is an unlikely complication. D. Rapid correction of the hyponatremia may prevent central pontine injury. E. This patient is best treated by restriction of water intake.

Description : Which of the following statements about head injury and concomitant hyponatremia are true? A. There are no primary alterations in cardiovascular signs. B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure may be ... central pontine injury. E. This patient is best treated by restriction of water intake.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: Acute symptomatic hyponatremia is characterized by central nervous system signs of increased intracranial pressure. Changes in blood pressure and pulse are secondary to ... lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Oliguric renal failure may rapidly develop in severe hyponatremia

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory abnormalities include hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperkalemia c. Fever may be seen with hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison's disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory ... hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Shock of a dramatic nature, poorly responsive to resuscitation, may develop as a consequence of adrenal insufficiency. In this country, adrenal insufficiency most ... of an ACTH stimulation test. A significant major cortisol response should be elicited by ACTH administration

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial response to restore intravascular volume b. With larger volume hemorrhagic shock deterioration of normal cellular transmembrane potential occurs resulting in an increase in extracellular sodium and water c. The accumulation of anaerobic metabolites override normal homeostatic vasomotor tone and contribute to the maladaptive vasodilatation d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial ... d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Moderate hypovolemia results in a relatively rapid spontaneous restitution of intravascular volume through expansion of the plasma space. This plasma expansion by ... potassium pump. Cellular dysfunction also appears to be related to abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy