Which of the statements listed below about bleeding disorders is/are correct? A. Acquired bleeding disorders are more common than congenital defects. B. Deficiencies of vitamin K decrease production of factors II, VII, IX, and X, protein C, and protein S. C. Hypothermia below 32؛C rarely causes a bleeding disorder. D. Von Willebrand's disease is a very uncommon congenital bleeding disorder.

Which of the statements listed below about bleeding disorders is/are correct? A.  Acquired bleeding disorders are more common than congenital defects. B.  Deficiencies of vitamin K decrease production of factors II, VII, IX, and X, protein C, and protein S. C.  Hypothermia below 32؛C rarely causes a bleeding disorder. D.  Von Willebrand's disease is a very uncommon congenital bleeding disorder.
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Answer: AB  DISCUSSION: Acquired bleeding disorders are significantly more common than congenital bleeding defects. Vitamin K deficiency may be related to malnutrition or competitive inhibition of the production of the vitamin K–dependent factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, and protein S by warfarin (Coumadin). Hypothermia causes significant platelet dysfunction with a significant bleeding disorder in many patients. It is among the least recognized causes of altered coagulation in surgical patients. Von Willebrand's disease is a relatively common disorder of bleeding and is generally undetectable by routine screening methods
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Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Which of the following statements about the coagulation cascade is/are true? A. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is the predominant pathway in vivo for hemostasis and coagulation. B. The intrinsic pathway beginning with the activation of factor XII is the predominant in vivo mechanism for activation of the coagulation cascade. C. Deficiencies of factor VIII and IX cause highly significant coagulation abnormalities. D. Deficiencies of factor XII cause severe clinical bleeding syndromes.

Description : Which of the following statements about the coagulation cascade is/are true? A. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is the predominant pathway in vivo for hemostasis and coagulation. ... coagulation abnormalities. D. Deficiencies of factor XII cause severe clinical bleeding syndromes.

Last Answer : Answer: AC DISCUSSION: Although it was previously held that two somewhat distinct pathways existed for the activation of the coagulation cascade, it is now recognized that the predominant ... bleeding. This further emphasizes the secondary role that the intrinsic pathway plays in coagulation

The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand’s disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level ptt also prolonged decreased platelet count. B. Bleeding time and factor IX level C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time

Description : The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand's disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and ... C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time

Last Answer : A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level ptt also prolonged decreased platelet count

Bleeding time is increased in: a. massive blood transfusion b. vitamin K deficiency c. von Willebrand's disease d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Description : Bleeding time is increased in: a. massive blood transfusion b. vitamin K deficiency c. von Willebrand's disease d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Last Answer : disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Choose the correct statement(s) about terlipressin: A. It is a prodrug B. It is used to control bleeding from esophageal varices C. It is preferred for controlling bleeding in von Willebrand's disease D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about terlipressin: A. It is a prodrug B. It is used to control bleeding from esophageal varices C. It is preferred for controlling bleeding in von Willebrand's disease D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and formation of a hemostatic plug. B. Interaction of tissue factor with factor VII circulating in the plasma. C. The production of thrombin via the coagulation cascade with conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

Description : Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and ... conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: Hemostasis requires the interaction of platelets with the exposed subendothelial structures at the site of injury followed by aggregation of more platelets in that area. ... form a stable clot that incorporates the platelet plug and fibrin thrombus into a stable clot

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factors. (A) VII (B) IX (C) X (D) All of these

Description : Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factors. (A) VII (B) IX (C) X (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factors: (A) VII (B) IX (C) X (D) All of these

Description : Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factors: (A) VII (B) IX (C) X (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Description : There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Last Answer : Answer: a, b A number of hypercoaguable states are present. These include heparin-associated thrombocytopenia in which a heparin-dependent platelet antibody causes aggregation of ... soft tissue increasing vascular permeability and fragility resulting in the potential for bleeding disorders

Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII

Description : Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII

Last Answer : A. Haemophilic disease

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated below; Project 1: i. Investment – Rs. 15 Lakhs ii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 4 lakhs. iii. Bi-annual maintenance cost – Rs. 50,000/- iv. Reconditioning and overhaul during 5th year: 6 lakhs v. Life of the project – 8 years vi. Salvage value – Rs. 5 lakhs Project 2: vii. Investment – Rs. 14 Lakhs viii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 3.5 lakhs. ix. Annual Maintenance cost – Rs. 20,000/- x. Reconditioning and overhaul during 4th year: 5 lakhs xi. Life of the project – 8 years xii. Salvage Value- 2 lakhs Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12

Description :  A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated  below; Project 1:  i. Investment - Rs. 15 Lakhs ii. Annual cost savings - Rs. 4 lakhs. iii. Bi-annual ... years xii. Salvage Value- 2 lakhs Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12

Last Answer : Year Project 1 Project 2 Outgo Saving NPV Outgo Saving NPV 0 15.0 0 =-15.0 14.0 0 = -14 1 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)1 = 3.571 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)1 = 2.95 2 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)2 = 2.79 0.2 3.5 ... (1+.12)8 = 3.43 0.2 5.5  (3.5+2) = (5.3 / (1+.12)8 = 2.14 NPV = + 2.301 @12% = + 0.15

Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis b. A major disadvantage of the peripheral technique is limited caloric delivery c. If total parenteral nutrition is required, access to the superior vena cava via the external jugular vein is the most suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis ... suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Last Answer : Answer: b Although peripheral access can be used for intravenous nutrition, the major disadvantage of this technique is limited caloric delivery to meet catabolic demands within tolerated fluid ... studies that use phlebography or radionucleotide venography indicate the incidence is as high as 35%

Which of the following statements are true of elevated–anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric acids may lead to this form of acidosis. C. Copious diarrhea does not produce this condition. D. Rapid volume expansion may produce this form of acidosis. E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of elevated-anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric ... E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: An elevated anion gap may be produced by lactic acidosis from shock or by retention of inorganic acids from uremia. Lactated Ringer's solution rapidly corrects the ... . Bicarbonate loss from diarrhea and dilutional acidosis are non-anion gap types of metabolic acidosis

A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The low blood pressure can be assumed to be due to neurogenic shock b. The sole cause of hypotension is the loss of sympathetic input to the venous system c. Despite significant hypotension, secondary organ injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Description : A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/ ... injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Last Answer : Answer: c Neurogenic shock results from interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input and develops after spinal cord injury, spinal anesthesia, and severe head injury. Under normal conditions, baseline ... the cause is not neurogenic and search for occult blood loss or cardiogenic causes of shock

Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Description : Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Collagen synthesis, an integral part of wound healing, is affected by many local and systemic factors. Protein depletion impairs fibroplasia. Hypoproteinemia leads to diminution of ... more than any other factor, wound infection is associated with the risk of wound failure

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency with an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) and/or an abnormal activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. For the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Description : The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency ... the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: The use of FFP as a volume expander is not indicated. There are currently several preparations (both crystalloid and colloid) that are equally effective and do not carry the infectious and ... vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and protein S

How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:** A. Like a normal child B. Like a diabetic child C. Like a haemophilic child

Description : How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:** A. Like a normal child B. Like a diabetic child C. Like a haemophilic child

Last Answer : C. Like a haemophilic child

Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Von Willebrand’s disease C. Addison’s desease

Description : Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Von Willebrand’s disease C. Addison’s desease

Last Answer : B. Von Willebrand’s disease

Café au lait spots are seen in: A. Von Willebrand’s disease B. Recklinghausen C. Neurofibromatosis

Description : Café au lait spots are seen in: A. Von Willebrand’s disease B. Recklinghausen C. Neurofibromatosis

Last Answer : . Recklinghausen C. Neurofibromatosis

I have some matchsticks set up like this: I + XI = X. If you do not know Roman numerals, here is a quick starter: I=1 II=2 III=3 IV=4 V=5 VI=6 VII=7 VIII=8 IX=9 X=10 XI=11 XII=12 XIII=13 XIV=14 XV=15...... Of course, I + XI = X is wrong. You are told to move the minimum number of matchsticks to make the question correct. So, how many do you have to move? -Riddles

Description : I have some matchsticks set up like this: I + XI = X. If you do not know Roman numerals, here is a quick starter: I=1 II=2 III=3 IV=4 V=5 VI=6 VII=7 VIII=8 IX=9 X=10 XI=11 ... are told to move the minimum number of matchsticks to make the question correct. So, how many do you have to move? -Riddles

Last Answer : Most people would get to one move at the least, but the real answer is zero moves. If you rotate the whole question around 180 degrees, it will display this: X = IX + I

Which of the following statements about delivery-dependent oxygen consumption are true? A. Below the critical oxygen delivery (D(overdot)O 2crit), one would expect to see a decrease in the lactate-pyruvate ratio. B. D(overdot)O 2crit may be increased in patients with sepsis. C. A desirable goal in the treatment of shock is to achieve delivery-independent oxygen consumption. D. The oxygen extraction ratio remains constant as long as oxygen delivery remains above D(overdot)O 2crit.

Description : Which of the following statements about delivery-dependent oxygen consumption are true? A. Below the critical oxygen delivery (D(overdot)O 2crit), one would expect to see a decrease in the ... oxygen extraction ratio remains constant as long as oxygen delivery remains above D(overdot)O 2crit.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Oxygen consumption is said to be delivery dependent below a critical point, D(overdot)O 2crit, at which anaerobic metabolism supervenes. Above this point, oxygen ... the therapeutic benefit of trying to achieve supranormal oxygen delivery has not been firmly established

Which of the following complications of TPN are appropriately managed with the listed treatment? a. Air embolism—place patient in reverse Trendelenburg and the left lateral decubitus position and aspirate venous air b. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis—give sodium and potassium as acetate salts c. Carbon dioxide retention—decrease glucose calories and replace with fat d. Line sepsis—intravenous antibiotics

Description : Which of the following complications of TPN are appropriately managed with the listed treatment? a. Air embolism-place patient in reverse Trendelenburg and the left lateral decubitus position ... dioxide retention-decrease glucose calories and replace with fat d. Line sepsis-intravenous antibiotics

Last Answer : Answer: b, c A number of complications of TPN can occur which can be divided into three types: mechanical, metabolic, and infectious

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily allowance for protein may triple in critically ill patients c. Urinary nitrogen losses will approach 0 in the face of protein starvation d. Negative nitrogen balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily ... balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Last Answer : Answer: b, d About 15% of the total body weight is made up of proteins, about half of which are intracellular and half extracellular. In man and other animals, dietary protein is the source of ... is exceeded by the amount of nitrogen lost in the urine, stool, skin, wounds, and fistula drainage

(i) `NH_(3)` (ii) `N_(2)H_(4)` (iii) `HN_(3)` (iv) `PH_(3)` (v) `H_(2)S` (vi) `AsH_(3)` (vii) `SbH_(3)` (viii) `H_(2)Se` (ix) `H_(2)Te` Number of mole

Description : (i) `NH_(3)` (ii) `N_(2)H_(4)` (iii) `HN_(3)` (iv) `PH_(3)` (v) `H_(2)S` (vi) `AsH_(3)` (vii) `SbH_(3)` (viii) `H_(2)Se` (ix) `H_(2)Te` Number of mole

Last Answer : (i) `NH_(3)` (ii) `N_(2)H_(4)` (iii) `HN_(3)` (iv) `PH_(3)` (v) `H_(2) ... lone pair of electrons on the central atom is present in pure s-orbital

(i) `NH_(3)` (ii) `N_(2)H_(4)` (iii) `HN_(3)` (iv) `PH_(3)` (v) `H_(2)S` (vi) `AsH_(3)` (vii) `SbH_(3)` (viii) `H_(2)Se` (ix) `H_(2)Te` Number of mole

Description : (i) `NH_(3)` (ii) `N_(2)H_(4)` (iii) `HN_(3)` (iv) `PH_(3)` (v) `H_(2)S` (vi) `AsH_(3)` (vii) `SbH_(3)` (viii) `H_(2)Se` (ix) `H_(2)Te` Number of mole

Last Answer : (i) `NH_(3)` (ii) `N_(2)H_(4)` (iii) `HN_(3)` (iv) `PH_(3)` (v) `H_(2) ... lone pair of electrons on the central atom is present in pure s-orbital

Which of the following is/are true? A. Because of its thickness, the tensile strength of a healing wound on the eyelid is much less than one on the thick skin of the back. B. By 2 days, the experimental burst strength of skin is minimal since collagen has been formed in the wound but has not yet cross-linked. C. Wound strength reaches a plateau by 3 weeks. D. Wounds rarely, if ever, regain the strength of intact tissues.

Description : Which of the following is/are true? A. Because of its thickness, the tensile strength of a healing wound on the eyelid is much less than one on the thick skin of the back. B. By 2 days, ... strength reaches a plateau by 3 weeks. D. Wounds rarely, if ever, regain the strength of intact tissues.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Tensile strength measures load per cross-section area at rupture, whereas burst strength measures load required to break a wound, regardless of dimension. Therefore, skin wounds have ... a slower rate for more than a year. Wounds do not regain the strength of normal tissue

Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the work of breathing b. Mechanical ventilation can decrease the energy expenditure for normal respiration c. For a 70 kg male, average resting energy consumption is almost 1500 kcal/day d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Description : Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the ... d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Basal energy requirements are measured with the subject at rest when no external work is being done; the energy is used mainly for transport and synthetic work within cells. A ... average-sized adult who sustains a major burn rarely may require more than 3500 kcal/day for maintenance

Cold conc. `HNO_(3)` will completely dissolve: (i) Pb (ii) `Pb_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Sn (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) Hg (viii) Au (ix) Ag (x) Pt

Description : Cold conc. `HNO_(3)` will completely dissolve: (i) Pb (ii) `Pb_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Sn (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) Hg (viii) Au (ix) Ag (x) Pt

Last Answer : Cold conc. `HNO_(3)` will completely dissolve: (i) Pb (ii) `Pb_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Sn (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) Hg (viii) Au (ix) Ag (x) Pt

Cold conc. `HNO_(3)` will completely dissolve: (i) Pb (ii) `Pb_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Sn (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) Hg (viii) Au (ix) Ag (x) Pt

Description : Cold conc. `HNO_(3)` will completely dissolve: (i) Pb (ii) `Pb_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Sn (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) Hg (viii) Au (ix) Ag (x) Pt

Last Answer : Cold conc. `HNO_(3)` will completely dissolve: (i) Pb (ii) `Pb_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Sn (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) Hg (viii) Au (ix) Ag (x) Pt

Differentiate between any five of the following. (i) Artery and vein (ii) Hard water and soft water (iii) E-mail and Snail mail (iv) Apes and monkey (v) Hydrostatics and hydrodynamics (vi) Comet and meteor (vii) Barrage and dam (viii) Electron and hole (ix) Isobars and isotopes (x) Autopsy and biopsy

Description : Differentiate between any five of the following. (i) Artery and vein (ii) Hard water and soft water (iii) E-mail and Snail mail (iv) Apes and monkey (v) Hydrostatics and hydrodynamics (vi) Comet and ... (vii) Barrage and dam (viii) Electron and hole (ix) Isobars and isotopes (x) Autopsy and biopsy

Last Answer : Answers: (i) Artery and vein: Arteries: Muscular blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart. All arteries, with the exception of the pulmonary and umbilical arteries, carry oxygenated blood ... to determine cause of death Biopsy: Removal and study of a tissue sample for diagnostic purposes

Name the quantities which are measured by the following units. (i) Newton (ii) Joule (iii) Watt (iv) Volt (v) Light year (vi) Angstrom (vii) Acre-foot (viii) Becquerel (ix) Hertz (x) Cusec

Description : Name the quantities which are measured by the following units. (i) Newton (ii) Joule (iii) Watt (iv) Volt (v) Light year (vi) Angstrom (vii) Acre-foot (viii) Becquerel (ix) Hertz (x) Cusec

Last Answer : Answers: (i) Force (ii) Work Energy (iii) Power of electricity (iv) Potential difference (v) Distance of stars and planets (vi) Length (vii) Volume (viii) Radioactivity (ix) Frequency (x) Rate of flow of water

Which quantity do the following units measure: (i) Volt (ii) Coulomb (iii) Walt (iv) Ohm (v) Mho (vi) Ampere (vii) Dyne (viii) Celsius (ix) Joule (x) Calorie

Description : Which quantity do the following units measure: (i) Volt (ii) Coulomb (iii) Walt (iv) Ohm (v) Mho (vi) Ampere (vii) Dyne (viii) Celsius (ix) Joule (x) Calorie

Last Answer : Answers: (i) Voltage (ii) Charge of Electricity (iii) Power (iv) Resistance (v) Conductivity (vi) Current (vii) Force (viii) Temperature (ix) Energy (x) Heat

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

The complement system consists of a series of serum proteins that exist in a quiescent or very low-level state of activation in the uninfected host. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning complement activation? a. The alternate (properdin) pathway of complement activation can occur directly through contact with fungal or bacterial cell wall compounds b. Complement component fragments may serve to decrease vascular permeability c. Excessive complement activation can produce deleterious effects d. Fragments of certain complement components serve as chemoattractants to additional cellular components of the host defense mechanism

Description : The complement system consists of a series of serum proteins that exist in a quiescent or very low-level state of activation in the uninfected host. Which of the following ... certain complement components serve as chemoattractants to additional cellular components of the host defense mechanism

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Complement activation can occur through either classic or alternate (properdin) pathways, both of which eventuate in deposition of terminal complement pathway components on the ... and release of lysosomal enzymes that can directly damage certain target tissues, such as the lung

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated intervascular coagulation (DIC) is considered. Which of the following laboratory test(s) is/are indicative of DIC? a. Decreased platelet count b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Description : A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated ... b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the primary form of acute thrombosis. Causes of this syndrome include abruptio placenta, gram-positive and gram-negative sepsis, ... decline in the platelet count and fibrinogen level, along with an elevation of fibrin split products

Which of the following statements regarding IL-1 are correct? a. While IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic effects, IL-1 appears to be more potent b. IL-1 expression is in part autoregulated c. IL-1 inhibits prostaglandin production d. The ability of IL-1 to upregulate endothelial cell-neutrophil adhesion molecules is relatively limited

Description : Which of the following statements regarding IL-1 are correct? a. While IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic effects, IL-1 appears to be more potent b. IL-1 expression is in part ... production d. The ability of IL-1 to upregulate endothelial cell-neutrophil adhesion molecules is relatively limited

Last Answer : Answer: b IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic properties. In addition, each potentiates the effects of the other one when given concurrently. Overall, IL-1 alone probably has weaker effects than ... IL-1 provides a key step in the extravasation of leukocytes to sites of local inflammation and injury

A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Description : A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. ... network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Last Answer : A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

Cold dil. `H_(2)SO_(4)` will completely dissolve : (i) Pb (ii) `Fe_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Cu (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) `CoCO_(3)` (viii) `CuCO_(2)` (ix)

Description : Cold dil. `H_(2)SO_(4)` will completely dissolve : (i) Pb (ii) `Fe_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Cu (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) `CoCO_(3)` (viii) `CuCO_(2)` (ix)

Last Answer : Cold dil. `H_(2)SO_(4)` will completely dissolve : (i) Pb (ii) `Fe_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Cu (v) ... ) `CoCO_(3)` (viii) `CuCO_(2)` (ix) `SrCO_(3)`

Cold dil. `H_(2)SO_(4)` will completely dissolve : (i) Pb (ii) `Fe_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Cu (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) `CoCO_(3)` (viii) `CuCO_(2)` (ix)

Description : Cold dil. `H_(2)SO_(4)` will completely dissolve : (i) Pb (ii) `Fe_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Cu (v) Mg (vi) MgO (vii) `CoCO_(3)` (viii) `CuCO_(2)` (ix)

Last Answer : Cold dil. `H_(2)SO_(4)` will completely dissolve : (i) Pb (ii) `Fe_(3)O_(4)` (iii) Fe (iv) Cu (v) ... ) `CoCO_(3)` (viii) `CuCO_(2)` (ix) `SrCO_(3)`