The significant ocular lesion in a riboflavinosis is (A) Keratomalacia (B) Bitot’s spots (C) Vascularisation of the cornea (D) Lachrynal metaplasia

The significant ocular lesion in a riboflavinosis is (A) Keratomalacia (B) Bitot’s spots (C) Vascularisation of the cornea (D) Lachrynal metaplasia
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The significant ocular lesion in arbo flovinosis: (A) Keratomalacia (B) Bitot’s spots (C) Vascularisation of the cornea (D) lachrymal metaplasia

Description : The significant ocular lesion in arbo flovinosis: (A) Keratomalacia (B) Bitot’s spots (C) Vascularisation of the cornea (D) lachrymal metaplasia

Last Answer : Answer : B

All are features of scurvy except Options: 1) Bitot's spots 2) Sub periosteal bleeding 3) Follicular hyperkeratosis 4) Cork screw hair

Description : All are features of scurvy except Options: 1) Bitot's spots 2) Sub periosteal bleeding 3) Follicular hyperkeratosis 4) Cork screw hair

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 1) Bitot's spots

An early effect of vitamin a deficiency is (A) Xerophthalmia (B) Keratomalacia (C) Prolonged dark adaptation time (D) Follicular hyperkeratosis

Description : An early effect of vitamin a deficiency is (A) Xerophthalmia (B) Keratomalacia (C) Prolonged dark adaptation time (D) Follicular hyperkeratosis

Last Answer : Answer : C

Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency of the vitamin: (A) B1 (B) B2 (C) B3 (D) B6

Description : Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency of the vitamin: (A) B1 (B) B2 (C) B3 (D) B6

Last Answer : Answer : B

How long would it take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filling in a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. 6 months B. 1 month C. 3 months

Description : How long would it take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filling in a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. 6 months B. 1 month C. 3 months

Last Answer : A. 6 months

Keratomalacia is caused due to the defi- ciency of?

Description : Keratomalacia is caused due to the defi- ciency of?

Last Answer : Vitamin A

What happens in plants during vascularisation? (a) Differentiation of procambium, formation of primary phloem followed by formation of primary xylem (b) Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of primary phloem and xylem simultaneously (c) Formation of procambium, primary phloem and xylem simultaneously (d) Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of secondary xylem

Description : What happens in plants during vascularisation? (a) Differentiation of procambium, formation of primary phloem followed by formation of primary xylem (b) Differentiation of procambium followed ... xylem simultaneously (d) Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of secondary xylem

Last Answer : (b) Differentiation of procambium followed by the formation of primary phloem and xylem simultaneously

Which of the following is true in regard to smoking, A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic bacteria C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection

Description : Which of the following is true in regard to smoking, A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic bacteria C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection

Last Answer : A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised

What is true about smokers, A. Causes immunosuppression B. Increased redox potential favours growth of anaerobic organisms C. Defects neutrophil function and characteristics D. Can produce smokers palate but rarely metaplasia

Description : What is true about smokers, A. Causes immunosuppression B. Increased redox potential favours growth of anaerobic organisms C. Defects neutrophil function and characteristics D. Can produce smokers palate but rarely metaplasia

Last Answer : A. Causes immunosuppression

The primary biochemical lesion in homozygote with familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) is (A) Loss of feed back inhibition of HMG reductase (B) Loss of apolipoprotein B (C) Increased production of LDL from VLDL (D) Functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for LDL

Description : The primary biochemical lesion in homozygote with familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) is (A) Loss of feed back inhibition of HMG reductase (B) Loss of apolipoprotein B (C) Increased production of LDL from VLDL (D) Functional deficiency of plasma membrane receptors for LDL

Last Answer : Answer : D

All the following statements about Wilson’s disease are correct except (A) It is a genetic disease (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-type ATPase (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia and around cornea (D) Plasma copper level is increased in it

Description : All the following statements about Wilson’s disease are correct except (A) It is a genetic disease (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-type ATPase (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia and around cornea (D) Plasma copper level is increased in it

Last Answer : Answer : D

Nyctalopia is (A) Drying of eyes (B) Destruction of cornea (C) Blindness (D) Inability to see in dimlight

Description : Nyctalopia is (A) Drying of eyes (B) Destruction of cornea (C) Blindness (D) Inability to see in dimlight

Last Answer : Answer : D

The component of cartilage and cornea is (A) Keratosulphate (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Cadmium sulphate (D) Antimony sulphate

Description : The component of cartilage and cornea is (A) Keratosulphate (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Cadmium sulphate (D) Antimony sulphate

Last Answer : A

Keratan sulphate is found in abundance in (A) Heart muscle (B) Liver (C) Adrenal cortex (D) Cornea

Description : Keratan sulphate is found in abundance in (A) Heart muscle (B) Liver (C) Adrenal cortex (D) Cornea

Last Answer : D

Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of Hurler's Syndrome rather than Hunter's Syndrome? 1) X-linked inheritance 2) Mental retardation 3) Skeletal abnormalities 4) Cloudy cornea 5) Cardiomyopathy

Description : Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of Hurler's Syndrome rather than Hunter's Syndrome? 1) X-linked inheritance 2) Mental retardation 3) Skeletal abnormalities 4) Cloudy cornea 5) Cardiomyopathy

Last Answer : Answers-4 Hunter's Syndrome (MPS-2) is of X-linked inheritance. The cornea are clear. The skeletal involvement tends to be mild with no gibbous present, though scoliosis is ... and gibbous deformation of the spine is characteristic. There is the characteristic coarse facies with hepatosplenomegaly.

Do you have any peculiar ocular stuff going on?

Description : Do you have any peculiar ocular stuff going on?

Last Answer : Unfortunately, yes. I often get what is called migraine with aura. I have moments that feel like my eyes are going cross eyed (this is the best way I can think of to explain it). It's not ... see zigzag patterns, blind spots and what looks like flashing lights when this happens. It's not fun. :/

If a microscope's ocular is marked 10x and the low power objective is marked 2xwhat would be the total magnification when using the low power objective?

Description : If a microscope's ocular is marked 10x and the low power objective is marked 2xwhat would be the total magnification when using the low power objective?

Last Answer : What is the answer ?

why arent both ocular lenses used in a binocular microscope?

Description : why arent both ocular lenses used in a binocular microscope?

Last Answer : This is because both ocular lenses are parallel, not in series. The light that passes through the sample is magnified by the objective and then the ocular, not objective and then through two ... light is important. Simply multiply the ocular (10x) by the objective to get the total magnification.

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Last Answer : Ans: A

Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes (a) Ocular evidence (b) Documentary evidence (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both (d) Ocular evidence based on documents only.

Description : Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes (a) Ocular evidence (b) Documentary evidence (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both (d) Ocular evidence based on documents only.

Last Answer : (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both

Capillaria aerophila causes ___________capillariasis and related symptoms. A A. pulmonary B. intestinal C. ocular D. Cutaneous

Description : Capillaria aerophila causes ___________capillariasis and related symptoms. A A. pulmonary B. intestinal C. ocular D. Cutaneous

Last Answer : pulmonary

Angiostrongylosis also called A A. Eosinophilic meningitis B. Eosinophilic dermatitis C. Ocular eosinophilia D. All of these

Description : Angiostrongylosis also called A A. Eosinophilic meningitis B. Eosinophilic dermatitis C. Ocular eosinophilia D. All of these

Last Answer : Eosinophilic meningitis

The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater of the brain c. autoregulation occurs in both retinal and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Description : The following are true about ocular circulation: a. only 4% of the total blood supply to the eye goes to the retina b. the choroidal blood flow in normal people is ten times that of the grey mater ... and choroidal circulation d. a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Last Answer : a PaCO2 rise of 1 mm Hg induces a 3% rise in retinal blood flow

Bradycardiac can occur in response to: a. elevated intraocular pressure b. ocular massage c. pulling of the extraocular muscle d. all above

Description : Bradycardiac can occur in response to: a. elevated intraocular pressure b. ocular massage c. pulling of the extraocular muscle d. all above

Last Answer : all above

An increase in intra-ocular pressure occurs with: a. normal blinking b. coughing c. hypercarbia d. all above

Description : An increase in intra-ocular pressure occurs with: a. normal blinking b. coughing c. hypercarbia d. all above

Last Answer : all above

True statements about the retinal blood flow include: a. the retina receives 5% of total ocular blood flow b. the retinal blood flow is mainly under the sympathetic control c. the retina blood vessels are impermeable to ascorbate d. the pericytes control the contractile activity of the retinal blood vessels

Description : True statements about the retinal blood flow include: a. the retina receives 5% of total ocular blood flow b. the retinal blood flow is mainly under the sympathetic control c. the ... are impermeable to ascorbate d. the pericytes control the contractile activity of the retinal blood vessels

Last Answer : the pericytes control the contractile activity of the retinal blood vessels

The following reflexes are used to test brain stem death: a. Babinski's reflexes b. accommodation c. gag reflex d. vestibular-ocular reflex

Description : The following reflexes are used to test brain stem death: a. Babinski's reflexes b. accommodation c. gag reflex d. vestibular-ocular reflex

Last Answer : vestibular-ocular reflex

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Description : Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment. b) Normal tension glaucoma Normal tension ... is treated initially with topical medications, with oral medications added at a later time.

Last Answer : a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

patient has complete ptosis in hih rt eye. pupil is out and down, fixed dilated. restricted ocular movements. dx a. 3rd n palsy. b. 4th n palsy. c. 3rd and 4th. d. 6th n palsy

Description : patient has complete ptosis in hih rt eye. pupil is out and down, fixed dilated. restricted ocular movements. dx a. 3rd n palsy. b. 4th n palsy. c. 3rd and 4th. d. 6th n palsy

Last Answer : a. 3rd n palsy.

Ocular disorders

Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in

Last Answer : herpes virus

The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide

Description : The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide

Last Answer : A. Thioridazine

Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except: A. Ocular tonometry B. Urethral dilatation C. Tooth extraction D. Anal fissure

Description : Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except: A. Ocular tonometry B. Urethral dilatation C. Tooth extraction D. Anal fissure

Last Answer : C. Tooth extraction

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Description : Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker: A. Timolol B. Betaxolol C. Cartiolol D. Levobunolol

Last Answer : D. Levobunolol

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion

Description : A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C