Urine examination in secondary dehydration shows (A) Ketonuria (B) Low specific gravity (C) High specific gravity (D) Albuminuria

Urine examination in secondary dehydration shows (A) Ketonuria (B) Low specific gravity (C) High specific gravity (D) Albuminuria
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Urine specific gravity of 1.054 indicates (A) Excellent renal function (B) Inappropriate secretion of ADH (C) Extreme dehydration (D) Presence of glucose or protein

Description : Urine specific gravity of 1.054 indicates (A) Excellent renal function (B) Inappropriate secretion of ADH (C) Extreme dehydration (D) Presence of glucose or protein

Last Answer : Answer : D

Specific gravity of urine is raised in all of the following except (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus (C) Dehydration (D) Acute glomerulonephritis

Description : Specific gravity of urine is raised in all of the following except (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus (C) Dehydration (D) Acute glomerulonephritis

Last Answer : D

ADH (A) Reabsorbs water from renal tubules (B) Excretes water from renal tubules (C) Excretes hypotonic urine (D) Causes low specific gravity of urine 210 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

Description : ADH (A) Reabsorbs water from renal tubules (B) Excretes water from renal tubules (C) Excretes hypotonic urine (D) Causes low specific gravity of urine 210 MCQs IN BIOCHEMISTRY

Last Answer : Answer : A

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus? (a) Uremia and Ketonuria (b) Uremia and Renal Calculi (c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria (d) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

Description : Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus? (a) Uremia and Ketonuria (b) Uremia and Renal Calculi (c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria (d) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

Last Answer : (c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria

What is micro-albuminuria?

Description : What is micro-albuminuria?

Last Answer : Albumin 50 to 300 mg/day in urine. It is a predictor of progressive renal damage, atherosclerotic diseases and cardiovascular mortality. Albumin more than 300 mg/day indicates overt diabetic nephropathy.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

A simple way to assess tubular function is to withhold food and water for 12 hours and, then, measure (A) Serum urea (B) Serum creatinine (C) Urine output in one hour (D) Specific gravity of urine

Description : A simple way to assess tubular function is to withhold food and water for 12 hours and, then, measure (A) Serum urea (B) Serum creatinine (C) Urine output in one hour (D) Specific gravity of urine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Specific gravity of urine is decreased in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Diarrhoea (D) Chronic glomerulonephritis

Description : Specific gravity of urine is decreased in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Acute glomerulonephritis (C) Diarrhoea (D) Chronic glomerulonephritis

Last Answer : B

Normal specific gravity of urine is (A) 1.000–1.010 (B) 1.012–1.024 (C) 1.025–1.034 (D) 1.035–1.045

Description : Normal specific gravity of urine is (A) 1.000–1.010 (B) 1.012–1.024 (C) 1.025–1.034 (D) 1.035–1.045

Last Answer : B

Fixation of specific gravity of urine to 1.010 is found in (A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Compulsive polydypsia (C) Cystinosis (D) Chronic glomerulonephritis

Description : Fixation of specific gravity of urine to 1.010 is found in (A) Diabetes insipidus (B) Compulsive polydypsia (C) Cystinosis (D) Chronic glomerulonephritis

Last Answer : D

Specific gravity of urine increases in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Compulsive polydypsia (D) Hypercalcemia

Description : Specific gravity of urine increases in (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Chronic glomerulonephritis (C) Compulsive polydypsia (D) Hypercalcemia

Last Answer : A

The specific gravity of urine normally ranges from (A) 0.900–0.999 (B) 1.003–1.030 (C) 1.000–1.001 (D) 1.101–1.120

Description : The specific gravity of urine normally ranges from (A) 0.900–0.999 (B) 1.003–1.030 (C) 1.000–1.001 (D) 1.101–1.120

Last Answer : B

ADH test is based on the measurement of (A) Specific gravity of urine (B) Concentration of urea in urine (C) Concentration of urea in blood (D) Volume of urine in ml/minute

Description : ADH test is based on the measurement of (A) Specific gravity of urine (B) Concentration of urea in urine (C) Concentration of urea in blood (D) Volume of urine in ml/minute

Last Answer : A

Important finding of secondary dehydration is (A) Intracellular oedema (B) Cellular dehydration (C) Thirst (D) Muscle cramps

Description : Important finding of secondary dehydration is (A) Intracellular oedema (B) Cellular dehydration (C) Thirst (D) Muscle cramps

Last Answer : Answer : A

An important cause of secondary dehydration is (A) Dysphagia (B) Oesophageal varices (C) Oesophageal varices (D) Gastroenteritis

Description : An important cause of secondary dehydration is (A) Dysphagia (B) Oesophageal varices (C) Oesophageal varices (D) Gastroenteritis

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which is NOT a correct consequence of surgical removal of portions of these glands? A) adrenal cortex--bronzing of skin, no glucose at stress, dehydration and death B) thymus--decrease in sex drive and changes in secondary sexual characteristics C) parathyroid glands--drop in blood calcium level and tetany (muscles shake) D) ovaries--alteration in menstrual cycle and change in secondary sex characteristics E) adult thyroid--low pulse rate and body temperature and lethargy

Description : Which is NOT a correct consequence of surgical removal of portions of these glands? A) adrenal cortex--bronzing of skin, no glucose at stress, dehydration and death B) thymus--decrease ... change in secondary sex characteristics E) adult thyroid--low pulse rate and body temperature and lethargy

Last Answer : B) thymus--decrease in sex drive and changes in secondary sexual characteristics

Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without glycosuria? (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus (C) Prolonged starvation (D) Addison’s disease

Description : Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without glycosuria? (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Diabetes insipidus (C) Prolonged starvation (D) Addison’s disease

Last Answer : Answer : C

An 16-year-old man presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Which of the following may confirm the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? 1) A random plasma glucose of >7.5 mmol/L 2) A finding of 3+ ketonuria 3) An HbA1c of 7.0% 4) A fasting plasma glucose of 7.5 mmol/L 5) An abnormal glucose tolerance test

Description : An 16-year-old man presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Which of the following may confirm the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? 1) A random plasma glucose of >7.5 mmol/L 2) A finding of 3+ ketonuria 3) An HbA1c of 7.0% 4) A fasting plasma glucose of 7.5 mmol/L 5) An abnormal glucose tolerance test

Last Answer : Answers-4 The diagnosis is usually relatively easy to confirm in a symptomatic subject. A random glucose of >11.1 mmol/L or a fasting glucose of >7.0 mmol/L would be regarded as ... haemoglobin (HbA1c) is also highly suggestive but not diagnostic. A glucose tolerance test is rarely needed.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Urine specific gravity?

Description : Urine specific gravity?

Last Answer : DefinitionUrine specific gravity is a laboratory test that measures the concentration of all chemical particles in the urine.See also:Urine concentration testUrine osmolalityUrinalysisAlternative NamesUrine densityHow the ... , balanced diet for several days before the test.How the test will feelTh

When fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine should be a) 1.010-1.025. Urine specific gravity is a measurement of the kidney’s ability to concentrate urine.

Description : When fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine should be a) 1.010-1.025. Urine specific gravity is a measurement of the kidney's ability to concentrate urine. b) 1.000. The ... intake. d) greater than 1.025. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.025 may indicate overhydration.

Last Answer : a) 1.010-1.025. Urine specific gravity is a measurement of the kidney’s ability to concentrate urine.

NASA was considering sending canaries into space to study them under zero gravity. The project was scrapped when someone realized that in spite of having sufficient water supplies, they could die of dehydration within a few hours. Why? -Riddles

Description : NASA was considering sending canaries into space to study them under zero gravity. The project was scrapped when someone realized that in spite of having sufficient water supplies, they could die of dehydration within a few hours. Why? -Riddles

Last Answer : Birds, unlike humans, need gravity to swallow. Humans can swallow even while hanging upside down.

A 55 year-old female complaining of vague tiredness is found to have a serum corrected calcium concentration of 2.9 mmol/l. Examination was unremarkable. Which of the following results confirms the suspected diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism? 1) High normal 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D concentration 2) High normal 24 hour urinary calcium concentration 3) High normal plasma parathyroid hormone concentration 4) Low normal plasma phosphate concentration 5) Low normal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration

Description : A 55 year-old female complaining of vague tiredness is found to have a serum corrected calcium concentration of 2.9 mmol/l. Examination was unremarkable. Which of the following results ... 4) Low normal plasma phosphate concentration 5) Low normal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentration

Last Answer : Answers-3 Bit too easy really. A high or even normal PTH concentration in the presence of hypercalcaemia would support the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. A high urinary Calcium concentration may ... but neither confirm the diagnosis. Elevated 1,25 VitD suggests a diagnosis of hypervitaminosis D.

Ketonuria is

Description : Ketonuria is

Last Answer : Ketonuria is A. Albumin in urine B. Globulin in urine C. Ketone bodies in urine D. None of the above

Ketonuria & glycosuria is an indicative of

Description : Ketonuria & glycosuria is an indicative of

Last Answer : Ketonuria & glycosuria is an indicative of

Ketonuria & glycosuria is an indicative of

Description : Ketonuria & glycosuria is an indicative of

Last Answer : Ketonuria & glycosuria is an indicative of

The following occur in untreated insulin dependent diabetes mellitus: a. diuresis b. decreased plasma amino acid c. increased plasma fatty acid d. ketonuria

Description : The following occur in untreated insulin dependent diabetes mellitus: a. diuresis b. decreased plasma amino acid c. increased plasma fatty acid d. ketonuria

Last Answer : ketonuria

A person affected with phenyl ketonuria ,lack an enzyme that converts the amino acid Phenyl alanine into

Description : 10. A person affected with phenyl ketonuria ,lack an enzyme that converts the amino acid Phenyl alanine into a) Valine b) Proline c) Tyrosine d) Methionine

Last Answer : 10.c) Tyrosine

Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging. b) Crystalluria Crystalluria ... Bacteriuria refers to a bacterial count higher than 100,000 colonies/mL in the urine.

Last Answer : a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Urine examination (Benedict’s test) of a 40 yr old obese male showed a brick red precipitate. This can result from all except Options: 1) Diabetes Mellitus 2) Drugs 3) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 4) Cushing’s syndrome

Description : Urine examination (Benedict’s test) of a 40 yr old obese male showed a brick red precipitate. This can result from all except Options: 1) Diabetes Mellitus 2) Drugs 3) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 4) Cushing’s syndrome

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 3) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) manometer connected across an orificemeter fitted in a pipe shows a manometer reading of 2 cms. If the manometer liquid is changed to carbon tetrachloride (specific gravity = 1.6), then for the same flow rate of water the new manometer reading will be __________ cms. (A) 17 (B) 42(C) 84 (D) 1.8

Description : A mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) manometer connected across an orificemeter fitted in a pipe shows a manometer reading of 2 cms. If the manometer liquid is changed to carbon tetrachloride (specific gravity = 1.6), then ... new manometer reading will be __________ cms. (A) 17 (B) 42 (C) 84 (D) 1.8

Last Answer : __________ cms. (A) 17

In Hurler’s syndrome, urine shows the presence of (A) Keratan sulphate I (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan sulphate (D) Keratan sulphate II

Description : In Hurler’s syndrome, urine shows the presence of (A) Keratan sulphate I (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan sulphate (D) Keratan sulphate II

Last Answer : Answer : C

In haemolytic jaundice, urine shows (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen (D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 91

Description : In haemolytic jaundice, urine shows (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen (D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 91

Last Answer : Answer : C

In obstructive jaundice, urine shows (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen (D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen

Description : In obstructive jaundice, urine shows (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen (D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following conditions indicates that a lead-acid battery is being charged too rapidly? A. Sparks occurring at the positive terminal. B. Unusually high electrolyte specific gravity. C. Low plate potentials being developed. D. Excessively high temperatures and gassing rates.

Description : Which of the following conditions indicates that a lead-acid battery is being charged too rapidly? A. Sparks occurring at the positive terminal. B. Unusually high electrolyte specific gravity. C. Low plate potentials being developed. D. Excessively high temperatures and gassing rates.

Last Answer : Answer: D

If violent gassing occurs when a lead-acid storage battery is first placed on charge, the _____________. A. battery must be given an emergency charge B. charging rate is too low C. charging rate is too high D. specific gravity of the electrolyte solution is too low

Description : If violent gassing occurs when a lead-acid storage battery is first placed on charge, the _____________. A. battery must be given an emergency charge B. charging rate is too low C. charging rate is too high D. specific gravity of the electrolyte solution is too low

Last Answer : Answer: C

Violent gassing from a lead-acid battery while it is being charged, indicates that the _____________. A. plate separators are grounded B. battery compartment ventilation is inadequate C. electrolyte specific gravity is too low D. charging rate is too high

Description : Violent gassing from a lead-acid battery while it is being charged, indicates that the _____________. A. plate separators are grounded B. battery compartment ventilation is inadequate C. electrolyte specific gravity is too low D. charging rate is too high

Last Answer : Answer: D

A lead-acid battery may become hotter than normal during a charge if the _________. A. battery has a shorted cell B. charging voltage is too low C. specific gravity is too high D. battery room door is secured

Description : A lead-acid battery may become hotter than normal during a charge if the _________. A. battery has a shorted cell B. charging voltage is too low C. specific gravity is too high D. battery room door is secured

Last Answer : Answer: A

Pick out the wrong statement. (A) Higher specific gravity of petroleum products means higher C/H ratio (B) Aromatics have lower specific gravity than corresponding paraffins (C) Hydrocarbons of low specific gravity (e.g., paraffins) possess the maximum thermal energy per unit volume (D) Hydrocarbons of high specific gravity (e.g., aromatics) possess the maximum thermal energy per unit weight

Description : Pick out the wrong statement. (A) Higher specific gravity of petroleum products means higher C/H ratio (B) Aromatics have lower specific gravity than corresponding paraffins (C) Hydrocarbons of low ... of high specific gravity (e.g., aromatics) possess the maximum thermal energy per unit weight

Last Answer : (B) Aromatics have lower specific gravity than corresponding paraffins

Magnetising steel is normals difficult because (a) it corrodes easily (6) it has high permeability (c) it has high specific gravity (d) it has low permeability

Description : Magnetising steel is normals difficult because (a) it corrodes easily (6) it has high permeability (c) it has high specific gravity (d) it has low permeability

Last Answer : (d) it has low permeability

71 High frequency transformers sometimes make use of ferrite cores because it has A. High specific gravity B. High resistance C. High hysteresis D. low permeability

Description : 71 High frequency transformers sometimes make use of ferrite cores because it has A. High specific gravity B. High resistance C. High hysteresis D. low permeability

Last Answer : B. High resistance

Attainment of professional competence requires the following, except: a. Initially, a high standard of education. b. Specific education, training, and examination in professionally relevant subjects. c. Whether prescribed or not, a period of work experience. d. A continuing awareness and an understanding of relevant technical professional and business developments.

Description : Attainment of professional competence requires the following, except: a. Initially, a high standard of education. b. Specific education, training, and examination in professionally relevant ... A continuing awareness and an understanding of relevant technical professional and business developments.

Last Answer : A continuing awareness and an understanding of relevant technical professional and business developments.

A patient complains of sensitivity, on examination you find a composite filling restoring a good cavity preparation without any secondary caries; what is your next step: A. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamed B. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp C. Ask patient to come back in six months D. Repeat restoration

Description : A patient complains of sensitivity, on examination you find a composite filling restoring a good cavity preparation without any secondary caries; what is your next step: A. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously ... to sedate the pulp C. Ask patient to come back in six months D. Repeat restoration

Last Answer : B. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his die

Description : Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his die

Last Answer : Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated ... and cobalamine C. Riboflavin D. Iron compounds

A 73-year-old man presents with an abrupt onset of double vision and left leg weakness. Examination shows weakness of abduction of the right eye, right-sided facial weakness affecting upper and lower parts of the face. He also has a left hemiparesis. Where is the lesion? A. left frontal lobe B. left lateral medulla C. right corpus striatum D. right midbrain E. right pons

Description : A 73-year-old man presents with an abrupt onset of double vision and left leg weakness. Examination shows weakness of abduction of the right eye, right-sided facial weakness affecting upper and lower ... frontal lobe B. left lateral medulla C. right corpus striatum D. right midbrain E. right pons

Last Answer : Ans: E

Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following is likely to alleviate his symptoms? (a) Iron compounds (b) Thiamine (c) Folic acid and cobalamine (d) Riboflavin

Description : Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following is likely to alleviate his symptoms? (a) Iron compounds (b) Thiamine (c) Folic acid and cobalamine (d) Riboflavin

Last Answer : (c) Folic acid and cobalamine

A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Measles (koplick spots are present next to the molars usually) B. Erythema multiform se da general mentor hombres mas de 20 años en labios C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Description : A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY ... mentor hombres mas de 20 años en labios C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Last Answer : C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Congenital dacryocystitis b. Interstitial keratitis c. Keratoconus d. Buphthalmos

Description : A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Congenital dacryocystitis b. Interstitial keratitis c. Keratoconus d. Buphthalmos 

Last Answer : ANSWER: D