The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action
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D. Good antipruritic action
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The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics: A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance B. High antimotion sickness activity C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti5 -HTa ctions D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergic action

Description : The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics: A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance B. High antimotion sickness activity C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti5 -HTa ctions D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergic action

Last Answer : B. High antimotion sickness activity

The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Last Answer : B. Vasopressor

The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Description : The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except: A. Local anaesthetic B. Vasopressor C. Antiarrhythmic D. Catecholamine potentiating

Last Answer : B. Vasopressor

While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid (a) Driving motor vehicles (b) Consuming processed cheese (c) Strenuous physical exertion (d) All of the above

Description : While prescribing the conventional H1 antihistaminics the patient should be advised to avoid (a) Driving motor vehicles (b) Consuming processed cheese (c) Strenuous physical exertion (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists

Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by: A. H1 antihistaminics alone B. H2 antagonists alone C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Description : Inhaled ipratropium bromide has the following advantages except: A. It does not alter respiratory secretions B. It does not depress airway mucociliary clearance C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol D. It only rarely produces systemic side effects

Last Answer : C. It has faster onset of bronchodilator action than inhaled salbutamol

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles

While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Description : While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid: A. Driving motor vehicles B. Consuming processed cheese C. Strenuous physical exertion D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Driving motor vehicles

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Description : Compared to other antipsychotic drugs, the distinctive feature of penfluridol is: A. Very long duration of action B. Weak dopamine D2 blocking activity C. Lack of extrapyramidal side effects D. Additional 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity

Last Answer : A. Very long duration of action

Dantrolene sodium reduces skeletal muscle tone by: A. Reducing acetylcholine release from motor nerve endings B. Suppressing spinal polysynaptic reflexes C. Inhibiting the generation of muscle action potential D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

Description : Dantrolene sodium reduces skeletal muscle tone by: A. Reducing acetylcholine release from motor nerve endings B. Suppressing spinal polysynaptic reflexes C. Inhibiting the generation of muscle action potential D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

Last Answer : D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

Description : The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

Last Answer : A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential

H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in (a) All types of allergic disorders (b) Certain type I allergic reactions only (c) Anaphylactic shock(d) Bronchial asthma

Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in (a) All types of allergic disorders (b) Certain type I allergic reactions only (c) Anaphylactic shock(d) Bronchial asthma

Last Answer : Ans: B

Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by (a) H1 antihistaminics alone (b) H2 ANTAgonists alone (c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists (d) None of the above

Description : Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by (a) H1 antihistaminics alone (b) H2 ANTAgonists alone (c) Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists (d) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Benefit afforded by certain H1 antihistaminics in the following condition is not based on antagonism of histamine: A. Dermographism B. Insect bite C. Common cold D. Seasonal hay fever

Description : Benefit afforded by certain H1 antihistaminics in the following condition is not based on antagonism of histamine: A. Dermographism B. Insect bite C. Common cold D. Seasonal hay fever

Last Answer : C. Common cold

H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in: A. All types of allergic disorders B. Certain type I allergic reactions only C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only D. Bronchial asthma

Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in: A. All types of allergic disorders B. Certain type I allergic reactions only C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only D. Bronchial asthma

Last Answer : B. Certain type I allergic reactions only

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances on discontinuation C. It does not act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Description : Which of the following statements is not true of zopiclone: A. It is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with efficacy and safety similar to benzodiazepines B. It does not produce rebound sleep disturbances ... act by potentiating GABA D. It is used to wean off insomniacs from regular benzodiazepine use

Last Answer : C. It does not act by potentiating GABA

The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine

The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Description : The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimulating properties: A. Promethazine B. Terfenadine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine

Last Answer : C. Cyproheptadine

Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Description : Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Last Answer : D. Rise in body temperature

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

The nurse recommends which of the following types of therapeutic baths for its antipruritic action? a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching associated with a dermatologic disorder.

Description : The nurse recommends which of the following types of therapeutic baths for its antipruritic action? a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching ... Saline Saline baths have the same effects as saline dressings, not known to counteract itching.

Last Answer : a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching associated with a dermatologic disorder.

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Description : The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis

s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres B. More slender fibres have shorter internodal distances C. Small sensory fibres generate higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Description : Which of the following is not the reason for greater susceptibility of smaller sensory fibres to blockade by local anaesthetics than larger motor fibres: A. Sensory fibres are inherently ... higher frequency longer lasting action potential D. Smaller fibres have shorter critical lengths for blockade

Last Answer : A. Sensory fibres are inherently more sensitive than motor fibres

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Description : Side effects of cyclic progestin therapy include the following except: A. Headache B. Gastroesophageal reflux C. Breast dyscomfort D. Irregular bleeding

Last Answer : D. Irregular bleeding

Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes

Description : Danazol produces the following side effects in premenopausal women except: A. Acne B. Menorrhagia C. Amenorrhoea D. Hot flashes

Last Answer : B. Menorrhagia

Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property

Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Description : Choose the relatively vasicoselective anticholinergic drug used for urinary frequency and urge incontinence due to detrusor instability: A. Pirenzepine B. Oxybutynin C. Oxyphenonium D. Glycopyrolate

Last Answer : B. Oxybutynin

Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine

Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine

Last Answer : A. Glycopyrrolate

Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It is a synthetic atropine substitute used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms