Description : The following is a proven human teratogen: A. Chloroquine B. Warfarin sodium C. Dicyclomine D. Methyldopa
Last Answer : B. Warfarin sodium
Description : Select the drug which has been found to be a strong human teratogen: A. Isoniazid B. Isotretinoin C. Hydralazine D. Propylthiouracil
Last Answer : B. Isotretinoin
Description : Which of the following is a weakly acidic drug: A. Atropine sulfate B. Chloroquine phosphate C. Ephedrine hydrochloride D. Phenytoin sodium
Last Answer : D. Phenytoin sodium
Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine
Last Answer : B. Chloroquine
Description : The antidotal action of sodium nitrite in cyanide poisoning is based on: A. Physical antagonism B. Chemical antagonism C. Physiological antagonism D. Noncompetitive antagonism
Last Answer : B. Chemical antagonism
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach: A. Morphine sulfate B. Diclofenac sodium C. Hyoscine hydrobromide D. Quinine dihydrochloride
Last Answer : B. Diclofenac sodium
Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine
Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate
Description : The U.S. EPA recently concluded that environmental tobacco smoke should be considered (quote) w) "a possible human teratogen" x) "a priority air pollutant" y) "a known human carcinogen" z) "a possible human carcinogen"
Last Answer : ANSWER: Y -- A KNOWN HUMAN CARCINOGEN
Description : Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions: A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 2C9 C. CYP 2E1 D. CYP 1A2
Last Answer : A. CYP 3A4
Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery (a) Glycopyrrolate (b) Pipenzolate methyl bromide (c) Isopropamide (d) Dicyclomine
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery: A. Glycopyrrolate B. Pipenzolate methyl bromide C. Isopropamide D. Dicyclomine
Last Answer : A. Glycopyrrolate
Description : Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer
Last Answer : B. Dry powder rotacap
Description : The most vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformations due to drugs is: A. 18-55 days of gestation B. 56-84 days of gestation C. Second trimester D. 36 weeks onwards
Last Answer : A. 18-55 days of gestation
Description : Adverse consequences may follow sudden discontinuation of the following drug after chronic intake: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Clonidine D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Clonidine
Description : An addicting drug which produces little or no physical dependence is: A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbitone C. Amphetamine D. Methadone
Last Answer : C. Amphetamine
Description : Intradermal drug sensitivity tests can detect the presence of following type of hypersensitivity: A. Type I (anaphylactic) B. Type II (cytolytic) C. Type III (retarded) D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Type I (anaphylactic)
Description : The most appropriate route of administration for adrenaline in a case of anaphylactic shock is: A. Intracardiac B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneous
Last Answer : A. Intracardiac
Description : The type II, type III and type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be suppressed by: A. Adrenaline B. Antihistaminics C. Corticosteroids D. Sod. cromoglycate
Last Answer : C. Corticosteroids
Description : Which of the following is the only life saving measure in case of anaphylactic shock: A. Intravenous hydrocortisone hemisuccinate B. Intravenous chlorpheniramine maleate C. Intramuscular adrenaline hydrochloride D. Intravenous glucose-saline
Last Answer : C. Intramuscular adrenaline hydrochloride
Description : Use of an emetic to remove the ingested poison is contraindicated in following poisonings except that by: A. Strychnine B. Caustic soda C. Ferrous sulfate D. Kerosene
Last Answer : C. Ferrous sulfate
Description : The following statement is true in relation to drug toxicity' and poisoning': A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. ... is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals
Last Answer : C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning
Description : A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that: A. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication C. It must involve drug induced cellular injury D. It involves host defence mechanisms
Last Answer : B. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication
Description : The side effect of a drug which has been used as a therapeutic effect in another condition is: A. Constipation caused by codeine B. Cough caused by captopril C. Uterine stimulation caused by quinine D. Diarrhoea caused by ampicillin
Last Answer : A. Constipation caused by codeine
Description : Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Idiosyncrasy D. Physical dependence
Last Answer : A. Side effect
Description : An undesirable effect of a drug that occurs at therapeutic doses and can be predicted from its pharmacological actions is called: A. Side effect B. Toxic effect C. Allergic reaction D. Idiosyncrasy
Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated
Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally
Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level
Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened
Description : In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in creatinine clearance: A. Propranolol B. Digoxin C. Lignocaine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : B. Digoxin
Description : In patients of hepatic cirrhosis: A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be predicted from the values of liver function tests B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
Last Answer : D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
Description : The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in men compared to women: A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements C. Ampicillin induced loose motions D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido
Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido
Description : The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to: A. Digoxin B. Salbutamol C. Propranolol D. Nifedipine
Last Answer : A. Digoxin
Description : Which adverse drug effect is more common in children than in adults: A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia D. Penicillin hypersensitivity
Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia
Description : The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs from that in adults, because their: A. Intestinal transit is fast B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed D. Glomerular filtration rate is high
Last Answer : C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
Description : Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug are most marked if it is disposed by: A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion D. Hepatic metabolism
Last Answer : D. Hepatic metabolism
Description : The following is a competitive antagonist of GABA but a noncompetitive antagonist of diazepam: A. Picrotoxin B. Muscimol C. Flumazenil D. Bicuculline
Last Answer : D. Bicuculline
Description : The following is not a feature of competitive antagonists: A. Chemical resemblance with the agonist B. Parallel rightward shift of the agonist log doseresponse curve C. Suppression of maximal agonist response D. Apparent reduction in agonist affinity for the receptor
Last Answer : C. Suppression of maximal agonist response
Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist
Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist
Description : A drug ‘R’ producing no response by itself causes the log dose-response curve of another drug ‘S’ to shift to the right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response: Drug ‘R’ is a: A. Partial agonist B. Inverse agonist C. Competitive antagonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist
Last Answer : C. Competitive antagonist
Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects
Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects
Description : If the effect of combination of two drugs is equal to the sum of their individual effects, the two drugs are exhibiting: A. Potentiation B. Synergism C. Cross tolerance D. Antagonism
Last Answer : B. Synergism
Description : Compared to the drug named within parenthesis, which of the following drugs has a higher potency but lower efficacy: A. Pethidine (morphine) B. Furosemide (hydrochlorothiazide) C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone) D. Enalapril (captopril)
Last Answer : C. Diazepam (pentobarbitone)
Description : The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its: A. Safety B. Potency C. Efficacy D. Dose variability
Last Answer : A. Safety
Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective
Last Answer : D. Highly selective
Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving
Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response
Description : Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses
Last Answer : D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses