Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
Last Answer : D. Ethambutol
Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive
Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol
Description : The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants: A. Broad spectrum antibiotic B. Cimetidine C. Aspirin D. Oral contraceptive
Last Answer : D. Oral contraceptive
Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin
Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P.falciparum as well as P. vivax: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Artesunate D. Proguanil
Last Answer : B. Mefloquine
Description : Which of the following is advised when a woman on combined oral contraceptive pill misses a dose: A. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose B. Take 2 pills the next ... for the remaining part of the course D. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception
Last Answer : Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course
Description : In which of the following forms of oral contraception, pills are taken continuously without interruption: A. Combined pill B. Phased pill C. Minipill D. Both 'B' and 'C
Last Answer : C. Minipill
Description : The most popular form of hormonal contraception is: A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill B. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill C. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill D. Depot progestin injection
Last Answer : A. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill
Description : The drugs that form complexes with pyridoxal are (A) Isoniazid (B) Penicillamine (C) Rifampicin (D) Both (A) and (B)
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine
Last Answer : A. Smokers
Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment
Description : ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine
Last Answer : C. Sucralfate
Description : The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is: A. Omeprazole B. Cimetidine C. Pirenzepine D. Misoprostol
Last Answer : A. Omeprazole
Description : The following drug displaces plasma protein bound phenytoin as well as decreases its metabolism: A. Carbamazepine B. Sodium valproate C. Cimetidine D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : B. Sodium valproate
Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs
Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs
Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin
Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin
Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
Last Answer : C. Ethambutol
Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier
Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap
Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it
Description : The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid
Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine
Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct
Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations
Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril
Last Answer : B. Methyldopa
Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : A. Prazosin
Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil
Last Answer : D. Sildenafil
Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Adenosine
Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine
Last Answer : B. Verapami
Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months
Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month
Description : Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine
Last Answer : B. Propranolol
Description : In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given: A. Daily B. On alternate days C. Weekly D. Monthly
Last Answer : D. Monthly
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole
Last Answer : A. Propranolol
Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability
Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion
Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion
Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect
Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action
Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine
Last Answer : A. Cimetidine
Description : Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of: A. Bromocriptine B. Cimetidine C. Famotidine D. Levodopa
Last Answer : B. Cimetidine
Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine
Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β-blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine
Last Answer : B. Indomethacin
Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β -blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine
Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver
Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria
Description : The regimen(s) used for postcoital emergency contraception is/are: A. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1 mg taken twice 12 hour apart B. Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken twice 12 hour apart C. Mifepristone 600 mg single dose D. All of the abov
Last Answer : D. All of the abov
Description : The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is: A. Same as for contraception B. Higher than that for contraception C. Lower than that for contraception D. Variable depending on the age of the woman
Last Answer : C. Lower than that for contraception
Description : Cimetidine interacts with more drugs than ranitidine because; a) It is subjected to greater first pass metabolism b) It is a more potent enzyme inducer c) It is a more potent enzyme inhibitor d) It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : c) It is a more potent enzyme inhibitor
Description : A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of ... atrophy. c) Increasing cervical mucous hostility. d) Inducing endometritis. e) Inhibiting prolactin.
Last Answer : a) Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months
Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid
Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month
Last Answer : C. 6 months