The following statement about lithium is not correct:
A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals
B. It controls mania, but takes 1–2 weeks to
produce the effect
C. It has prophylactic effect in recurrent
unipolar depression
D. It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It has a sedative action in normal individuals

Related questions

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : Indications of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Attention deficit-hyperactive disorder in children B. Mania C. Prophylaxis of migraine D. Panic disorder

Last Answer : B. Mania

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : The following drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in mania and bipolar illness: A. Carbamazepine B. Carisoprodol C. Clomipramine D. Diethyl carbamazine

Last Answer : A. Carbamazepine

Description : The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is: A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci B. Prolongation of action potential duration C. Prolongation of effective refractory period D. Depression of membrane responsiveness

Last Answer : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

Description : The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: A. Na+ channel blockade B. K+ channel opening C. Depression of impulse conduction D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

Last Answer : A. Na+ channel blockade

Description : Select the drug which is a causal prophylactic for both falciparum and vivax malaria but is not used as prophylactic on mass scale due to risk of severe reaction in some individuals: A. Mefloquine B. Amodiaquine C. Primaquine D. Pyrimethamine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Description : Tricyclic antidepressants abolish the antihypertensive action of the following drug: A. Enalapril B. Clonidine C. Atenolol D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Clonidine

Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus

Description : Leukotriene antagonists are used in bronchial asthma: A. For terminating acute attacks B. As monotherapy in place of β2 agonists C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids D. As nebulized powder in refractory cases

Last Answer : C. As adjuvants to β2 agonists for avoiding corticosteroids

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

Description : Tolerance is generally not acquired to: A. Antisecretory action of atropine B. Sedative action of chlorpromazine C. Emetic action of levodopa D. Vasodilator action of nitrates

Last Answer : A. Antisecretory action of atropine

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Last Answer : C. Three weeks

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

Description : Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Last Answer : A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy

Description : The following statement is not true of carbamazepine: A. It generates an active metabolite B. Its plasma half life decreases to nearly half of the original value after chronic use C. It is being used in mania D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Last Answer : D. It is not effective in complex partial seizures

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Description : Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Last Answer : B. Abolishes after depolarizations

Description : The tricyclic antidepressants are also effective in the following psychiatric disorders except: A. Schizophrenia B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Bulimia D. Phobic states

Last Answer : A. Schizophreni

Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Description : The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : The following action of digoxin is responsible for beneficial effect in auricular fibrillation: A. Increased myocardial contractility B. Suppression of SA node C. Depression of A-V conduction D. Enhanced Purkinje fibre automaticity

Last Answer : C. Depression of A-V conduction

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

Description : The following drug should be used only as clinical curative but not as prophylactic in malaria: A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine B. Proguanil C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : A. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine

Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

Last Answer : B. 6-12 months

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Description : What is true of tolerance occurring in regular opium abusers: A. Tolerance develops to all actions of morphine B. No tolerance occurs to euphoric and sedative actions of morphine C. No ... to constipating and miotic actions of morphine D. Lethal dose of morphine is not significantly increased

Last Answer : C. No tolerance occurs to constipating and miotic actions of morphine

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

Description : Of the following, choose the antidepressant having both high sedative and high anticholinergic activity: A. Imipramine B. Amitriptyline C. Fluoxetine D. Trazodone

Last Answer : B. Amitriptyline

Description : Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain: A. Chlorpromazine B. Triflupromazine C. Haloperidol D. Olanzapine

Last Answer : C. Haloperido

Description : The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is: A. Pentobarbitone B. Phenobarbitone C. Butabarbitone D. Thiopentone

Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : What is true of docetaxel: A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer B. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer C. It is effective only in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer

Description : For therapeutic effect in manic depressive illness, steady-state serum lithium concentration should be maintained between: A. 0.2–0.4 mEq/L B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L C. 1.0–1.3 mEq/L D. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L

Last Answer : B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L

Description : Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine should be used as a: A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria B. Clinical curative in areas without chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum C. Prophylactic in areas with or without chloroquine resistance D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Clinical curative in areas with chloroquine resistant malaria

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

Description : If a drug is active against the preerythrocytic stage of the malarial parasite it will be useful as a: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Causal prophylactic C. Clinical curative D. Radical curative

Last Answer : B. Causal prophylactic

Description : The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil

Last Answer : D. Proguanil

Description : Erythrocytic schizontocide antimalarial drugs are used as: A. Suppressive prophylactic B. Clinical curative C. Radical curative for P.vivax D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

Description : Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Last Answer : A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold

Description : Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Last Answer : C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate