Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol
Last Answer : C. Cimetidin
Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections
Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera
Description : The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum ... Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy
Last Answer : A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics
Description : All the following conditions produce a real or functional deficiency of vitamin K except (A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy (B) Total lack of red meat in the diet (C) The total lack of green leafy vegetables in the diet (D) Being a new born infant
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive
Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol
Description : Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention
Last Answer : C. Headache
Description : The following is/are true of mesalazine: A. It exerts mainly local antiinflammatory action in the lower gut B. It is a broad spectrum antidiarrhoeal drug C. It can be administered as a retention enema D. Both 'A' and 'C
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C
Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem
Last Answer : B. Amiodarone
Description : The following is true of topiramate except: A. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug B. It inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase C. It is used as add-on therapy in refractory partial seizures D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Last Answer : D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures
Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug
Description : Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive pill include the following except: A. Reduced menstrual blood loss B. Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease C. Lower risk of myocardial infarction D. Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma
Last Answer : . Lower risk of myocardial infarction
Description : Oral contraceptive use increases the risk of occurrence of the following diseases except: A. Hypertension B. Leg vein thrombosis C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Gall stones
Last Answer : C. Endometrial carcinoma
Description : Which of the following is advised when a woman on combined oral contraceptive pill misses a dose: A. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose B. Take 2 pills the next ... for the remaining part of the course D. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception
Last Answer : Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course
Description : The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pill is: A. Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration B. Suppression of FSH and ... Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation D. Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum
Last Answer : B. Suppression of FSH and LH release
Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus
Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation
Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting
Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own
Description : ntacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer drug: A. Cimetidine B. Colloidal bismuth C. Sucralfate D. Pirenzepine
Last Answer : C. Sucralfate
Description : The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is: A. Omeprazole B. Cimetidine C. Pirenzepine D. Misoprostol
Last Answer : A. Omeprazole
Description : The following drug displaces plasma protein bound phenytoin as well as decreases its metabolism: A. Carbamazepine B. Sodium valproate C. Cimetidine D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : B. Sodium valproate
Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect
Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action
Description : Which histamine H2 blocker has most marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytochrome P-450 enzyme: A. Cimetidine B. Ranitidine C. Roxatidine D. Famotidine
Last Answer : A. Cimetidine
Description : Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of: A. Bromocriptine B. Cimetidine C. Famotidine D. Levodopa
Last Answer : B. Cimetidine
Description : How many chiral carbon atoms does Tetrachycline A (a broad spectrum antibiotic) have ?
Last Answer : How many chiral carbon atoms does Tetrachycline A (a broad spectrum antibiotic) have ?
Description : The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic ... d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting
Last Answer : Answer: a Intravenous administration of an antibiotic is clearly indicated for patients undergoing clean contaminated operations. These antibiotics should be administered prior to surgery ... of antimicrobial agents is equivalent to the administration of intravenous antimicrobial agent antibiotics
Description : Distinguish between a narrow spectrum and broad spectrum antibiotic.
Last Answer : Ans. A narrow spectrum antibiotic works against a limited range of microbes whereas a broad spectrum antibiotic works against a large variety of microbes.
Description : Aspirin reduces fever by: A. Decreasing heat production in the body B. Enhancing cutaneous blood flow C. Inducing sweating D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae
Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases
Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Last Answer : D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive
Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma
Description : A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis
Last Answer : C. Side effect of the drug
Description : Select the drug that primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial effect: A. Tamsulosin B. Terazosin C. Finasteride D. Amphetamine
Last Answer : C. Finasteride
Description : Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition: A. Appendicitis B. Campylobacter diarrhoea C. Bacillary dysentery D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Last Answer : D. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in steatorrhoea and loose motions: A. Ampicillin B. Tetracycline C. Neomycin D. Nystatin
Last Answer : C. Neomycin
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension
Last Answer : B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding
Description : Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin
Last Answer : B. Ticlopidine
Description : The following drug increases cyclic-AMP in platelets and inhibits their aggregation without altering levels of thromboxane A2 or prostacyclin: A. Aspirin B. Sulfinpyrazone C. Dipyridamole D. Abciximab
Last Answer : C. Dipyridamole
Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin
Last Answer : B. Warfarin
Description : The drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is: A. Aspirin B. Imipramine C. Carbamazepine D. Valproic acid
Last Answer : C. Carbamazepine
Description : The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is: A. Aspirin B. Procaine C. Morphine D. Sulfadiazine
Last Answer : C. Morphine
Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria
Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine
Last Answer : B. Chloroquine
Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism
Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin
Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine
Description : Which of the following drugs attenuates the antihypertensive action of β-blockers: A. Cimetidine B. Indomethacin C. Chlorpromazine D. Imipramine
Last Answer : B. Indomethacin
Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine
Last Answer : A. Smokers