Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because:
A. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin
B. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin
C. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin
D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy
amoxicillin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy
amoxicillin
by

Related questions

Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because (a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by-moxicillin (b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin (c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin (d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Description : Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because (a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by-moxicillin (b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin (c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin (d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organisms except: A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus B. Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus C. Penicillinase producing N.gonorrhoeae D. β-lactamase producing E.coli

Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organisms except: A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus B. Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus C. Penicillinase producing N.gonorrhoeae D. β-lactamase producing E.coli

Last Answer : A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus

Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

Description : Select the drug combination which does not exhibit supraadditive synergism: A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin B. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid + Nitrofurantoin

The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive to the latter C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Description : The following statement is not true of sulbactam: A. It is a broad spectrum β-lactamase inhibitor B. It does not augment the activity of ampicillin against bacteria that are sensitive ... β-lactamases D. Combined with ampicillin, it is highly effective against penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : C. It induces chromosomal β-lactamases

Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Description : Sulbactam differs from clavulanic acid in that: A. It is not a progressive inhibitor of β-lactamase B. It does not inhibit β-lactamase produced by gram negative bacilli C. It is quantitatively more potent D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Last Answer : D. It per se inhibits N.gonorrhoeae

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the ‘on-off ’ effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian patients C. It retards the progression of Parkinson's disease D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Description : The following is true of selegiline: A. It does not exert antiparkinsonian action unless combined with levodopa B. It overcomes the on-off ' effect in levodopa treated advanced parkinsonian ... D. At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Last Answer : . At doses used in parkinsonism it does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amines

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Last Answer : Ans: A

In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Description : In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci (a) Amoxicillin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Erythromycin (d) Nafcillin (e) Tetracycline

Last Answer : Ans: D

The most likely explanation of differing sensitivities of different bacteria to various penicillins is: A. Differing susceptibilities of the various penicillins to β-lactamases produced by different bacteria B. Differing affinities of penicillin binding proteins present in different bacteria towards various penicillins C. Differing penetrability of various penicillins into different bacteria D. Differing rates of cell wall synthesis by different bacteria

Description : The most likely explanation of differing sensitivities of different bacteria to various penicillins is: A. Differing susceptibilities of the various penicillins to β-lactamases produced by different ... into different bacteria D. Differing rates of cell wall synthesis by different bacteria

Last Answer : B. Differing affinities of penicillin binding proteins present in different bacteria towards various penicillins

Two major drawbacks to the use of ______ is allergies and beta- lactamases produced by resistant bacteria. a. Tetracyclineb. Penicillin c. Cephalosporin d. Bacitracin

Description : Two major drawbacks to the use of ______ is allergies and beta- lactamases produced by resistant bacteria. a. Tetracycline b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporin d. Bacitracin

Last Answer : b. Penicillin

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Description : Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

Last Answer : B. Calcium

Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase

Description : Amiloride inhibits K+ excretion in the distal tubules and collecting ducts by blocking: A. Electrogenic K+ channels B. Electrogenic Na+ channels C. Nonelectrogenic Na+-Cl– symport D. H+K+ATPase

Last Answer : B. Electrogenic Na+ channels

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Description : Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion in the renal collecting duct cells by: A. Inducing synthesis of Na+K+ATPase B. Inducing synthesis of amiloride sensitive Na+ channels C. Translocating Na+ channels from cytosolic site to luminal membrane D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Description : Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Description : Which of the following processes plays the major role in terminating the action of phenobarbitone: A. Biliary excretion B. Renal excretion C. Hepatic metabolism D. Redistribution

Last Answer : B. Renal excretion

Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme C. It inhibits bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above

Description : Trimethoprim inhibits bacteria without affecting mammalian cells because: A. It does not penetrate mammalian cells B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate ... bacterial folate synthetase as well as dihydrofolate reductase enzymes D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It has high affinity for bacterial but low affinity for mammalian dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin that is highly resistant to gram negative β-lactamases, and cures penicillinase positive as well as negative gonococcal infection by a single intramuscular dose: A. Cephalexin B. Cefuroxime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftazidime

Description : Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin that is highly resistant to gram negative β-lactamases, and cures penicillinase positive as well as negative gonococcal infection by a single intramuscular dose: A. Cephalexin B. Cefuroxime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftazidime

Last Answer : B. Cefuroxime

Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Description : Choose the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant: A. Cloxacillin B. Amoxicillin C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin D. Piperacillin

Last Answer : B. Amoxicillin

A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria

Description : The following is true for gentamicin: A. It is more active in acidic medium B. It has a wide margin of safety C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration D. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria

Last Answer : C. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration

What is true of cefpirome: A. It is a fourth generation cephalosporin B. It easily penetrates porin channels of gram negative bacteria C. It inhibits type I β-lactamase producing enterobacteriaceae D. All of the above

Description : What is true of cefpirome: A. It is a fourth generation cephalosporin B. It easily penetrates porin channels of gram negative bacteria C. It inhibits type I β-lactamase producing enterobacteriaceae D. All of the above

Last Answer : . All of the above

Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following except (a) Gastrointestinal ulceration (b) Renal dysfunction (c) Enhanced methotrexate toxicity (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Hypersensitivity asthma

Description : Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following except (a) Gastrointestinal ulceration (b) Renal dysfunction (c) Enhanced methotrexate toxicity (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Hypersensitivity asthma

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules. b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules. c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting? a) A patient ... started taking ramipril. d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

Last Answer : d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

The following is true of mefloquine: A. P. falciparum does not develop resistance to mefloquine B. Concurrent use of β blockers with mefloquine is contraindicated C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine D. All of the above

Description : The following is true of mefloquine: A. P. falciparum does not develop resistance to mefloquine B. Concurrent use of β blockers with mefloquine is contraindicated C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Neuropsychiatric reactions are the most important adverse effects of mefloquine

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Last Answer : C. Kidney damage

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except: A. Gastrointestinal tract B. Kidney C. Skin D. Nervous system

Last Answer : B. Kidney

A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Description : A higher incidence of adverse effects to cotrimoxazole occurs when this drug is used for: A. Typhoid fever B. Whooping cough C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients D. Chancroid

Last Answer : C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients

Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds: A. Sedation B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances C. Postural hypotension D. Lowering of seizure threshold

Last Answer : B. Extrapyramidal motor disturbances

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Description : Parenteral testosterone therapy in a boy can cause the following adverse effects except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Acne C. Cholestatic jaundice D. Precocious puberty

Last Answer : C. Cholestatic jaundice

The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Description : The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Last Answer : A. Sedation

In parkinsonian patients levodopa exerts the following effects except: A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility B. Decreases muscle tone C. Increases locomotor activity D. Inhibits muscle tremor

Description : In parkinsonian patients levodopa exerts the following effects except: A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility B. Decreases muscle tone C. Increases locomotor activity D. Inhibits muscle tremor

Last Answer : A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility

Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Last Answer : C. Metronidazole

The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline

Description : The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline

Last Answer : C. Ceftriaxone

Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea

Description : Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection: A. Typhoid B. Shigella enteritis C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis D. Gonorrhoea

Last Answer : B. Shigella enteritis

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'