Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not
hepatotoxic:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Ethambutol
by

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Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

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Last Answer : Ans: A

Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

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Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

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Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

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Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Last Answer : B. Initial two months

The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

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Last Answer : B. Rifampin

Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

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Last Answer : C. Cimetidin

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

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Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

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The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

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Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it

The drugs that form complexes with pyridoxal are (A) Isoniazid (B) Penicillamine (C) Rifampicin (D) Both (A) and (B)

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The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

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Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol

Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive

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Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat a. Cholera. b. Influenza. c. MRSA.d. Tuberculosis.

Description : Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat a. Cholera. b. Influenza. c. MRSA. d. Tuberculosis.

Last Answer : d. Tuberculosis.

Entacapone differs from tolcapone in the following respect/respects: A. It is shorter acting B. It acts only by inhibiting peripheral metabolism of levodopa C. It is not hepatotoxic D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given: A. Daily B. On alternate days C. Weekly D. Monthly

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Last Answer : D. Monthly

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

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Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamo

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

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Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

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Last Answer : . Started immediately

The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

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Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

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Last Answer : B. Visual defects

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Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol

Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Tetracycline

Which of the following drugs inhibits theophylline metabolism and raises its plasma concentration: A. Phenytoin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Levofloxacin D. Rifampicin

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Last Answer : B. Ciprofloxacin

The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid

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Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism

Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during therapy with (A) Isoniazid (B) Terramycin (C) Sulpha drugs (D) Aspirin

Description : Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during therapy with (A) Isoniazid (B) Terramycin (C) Sulpha drugs (D) Aspirin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to treat some viral infections. a. penicillin and ampicillin b. isoniazid and dapsone c. amantadine and acyclovir d. streptomycin and amphotericin

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Last Answer : Answer : C

Rifampicin inhibits (A) Unwinding of DNA (B) Initiation of replication (C) Initiation of translation (D) Initiation of transcription

Description : Rifampicin inhibits (A) Unwinding of DNA (B) Initiation of replication (C) Initiation of translation (D) Initiation of transcription

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which of the following concerning the conjugation of bilirubin is correct? 1) is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase 2) occurs in the Kupfer cells of the liver 3) is increased by valproate 4) is inhibited by rifampicin 5) is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome

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Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

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Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later