Description : Corneal sensations are diminished in
Last Answer : herpes virus
Description : The best treatment for amblyopia is: a. Orthoptic exercises b. Occlusion c. Surgery d. Best treat after age 10 years
Last Answer : ANSWER: B
Description : In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is: a. Simultaneous macular vision b. Fusion c. Stereopsis
Description : In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Description : In concomitant squint: a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation d. None of the above
Last Answer : ANSWER: C
Description : The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is: a. Superior rectus b. Superior oblique c. Inferior oblique d. Inferior rectus
Description : The action of inferior oblique is: a. Depression, extorsion, abduction b. Depression, extorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
Last Answer : ANSWER: D
Description : The action of superior rectus is: a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
Description : All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except: a. Superior rectus b. Ciliary muscle c. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique
Description : In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is: a. Inward b. Outward c. Outward and up d. Outward and down
Description : D-shaped pupil occurs in: a. Iridocyclitis b. Iridodenesis c. Cyclodialsis d. Iridodialysis
Description : Mydriasis is present in all the following except: a. Third nerve lesion b. Pontine haemorrhage c. Datura poisoning d. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in: a. Optic chiasma b. Retina c. optic tract d. Optic nerve
Description : Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except: a. Marked loss of vision b. Blurring of disc margins c. Hyperemia of disc d. Field defect
Description : Optic nerve axon emerges from: a. Ganglion cells b. Rods and cones c. Amacrine cells d. Inner nuclear layer
Description : Optic nerve function is best studied by: a. Direct Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Perimetry d. Gonioscopy
Description : Optic disc diameter is: a. 1 mm b. 1.5 mm c. 2 mm d. 3 mm
Description : Which is not found in papilloedema? a. Blurred vision b. Blurred margins of disc c. Cupping of disc d. Retinal edema
Description : Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at: a. Optic tract b. Optic nerve c. Optic chiasma d. Retina e. Occipital cortex
Description : All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except: a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Miosis d. Outwards eye deviation
Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis
Description : The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is: a. Secondary optic atrophy b. Consecutive optic atrophy c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy d. Primary optic atrophy
Description : Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by: a. Marked swelling of the optic disc. b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye d. Normal visual acuity
Description : Primary optic atrophy results from: a. Retinal disease b. Chronic glaucoma c. Papilledema d. Neurological disease
Description : Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects: a. Lower nasal sector field defect b. Upper nasal sector field defect c. Upper temporal field defect d. Lower temporal sector field defect
Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion
Description : The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is: a. Retinoblastoma b. Choroidal melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva d. Iris nevus
Description : In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to: a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Description : Night blindness is caused by: a. Central retinal vein occlusion b. Dystrophies of retinal rods c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones d. Retinal detachment
Description : Commotio retinae is seen in: a. Concussion injury b. Papilloedema c. Central retinal vein thrombosis d. Central retinal artery thrombosis
Last Answer : a
Description : Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is: a. Macular oedema b. Microaneurysm c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Retinal detachment
Description : Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in: a. Papilloedema b. Retinoblastoma c. Papillitis d. Retinitis
Description : A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Description : 100 days glaucoma is seen in: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion c. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Description : In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between: a. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer. b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina. d. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
Description : Number of layers in neurosensory retina is: a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12
Description : You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case? a. Shallow anterior chamber b. Optic disc cupping c. Narrow angle d. visual acuity and refractive error
Description : A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Congenital dacryocystitis b. Interstitial keratitis c. Keratoconus d. Buphthalmos
Description : Neovascular glaucoma follows: a. Thrombosis of central retinal vein b. Acute congestive glaucoma c. Staphylococcal infection d. Hypertension
Description : Topical atropine is contraindicated in: a. Retinoscopy in children b. Iridocyclitis c. Corneal ulcer d. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Description : The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is: a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy b. Yag laser iridotomy c. Trabeculotomy d. Trabeculectomy
Description : All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the following except: a. Roenne’s nasal step b. Enlarged blind spot c. Generalized depression of isopters d. Loss of central fields e. Tubular vision
Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis
Description : Best site where intraocular lens is fitted: a. Capsular ligament b. Endosulcus c. Ciliary supported d. Capsular bag
Description : Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with: a. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation b. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation c. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation d. Small incision cataract extraction
Description : Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in: a. Intumescent cataract. b. Anterior lens dislocation, c. Posterior subcapsular cataract d. Posterior lens dislocation
Description : Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by: a. Fistulizing operation b. Cataract extraction c. Cyclo-destructive procedure d. Miotics and Beta blockers
Description : Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following except: a. Anterior chamber intraocular lens b. Posterior chamber intraocular lens c. Contact tens d. Glasses
Description : Which laser is used for capsulotomy? a. Diode laser b. Carbon dioxide laser c. Excimer laser d. ND: YAG laser
Description : The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes: a. Keratic precipitates b. Hypopyon c. Posterior synechiae d. Aqueous flare