Recent questions tagged pharmacology

Description : How did scientists decide that DNA was the genetic material for all cellular organisms?

Last Answer : The proof that the material basis for a gene is DNA came from the work of Oswald T.Avery (1877-1955), Colin M. MacLeod (1909-1972), and Maclyn McCarty (1911-) in a paper published ... exposed to DNase, an enzyme that destroys DNA, all transformation activity ceased. The transforming factor was DNA.

Description : What is triclosan?

Last Answer : Triclosan has properties of a phenol and is extremely popular in antibacterial products such as hand sanitizers, antibacterial soaps, lotions, toothpastes, and even as an antimicrobial ... antibiotics. This is of particular concern with antibiotic resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus. 

Description : How are fingerprints used for computer security and why?

Last Answer : An individual's fingerprints remain the same throughout his or her entire life. Minor cuts or abrasions, and some skin diseases such as eczema or psoriasis, may cause temporary disturbances ... to individual bank accounts and automated teller machines, and for credit cards and Internet transactions.

Description : What is triclosan? 

Last Answer : Triclosan has properties of a phenol and is extremely popular in antibacterial products such as hand sanitizers, antibacterial soaps, lotions, toothpastes, and even as an antimicrobial ... antibiotics. This is of particular concern with antibiotic resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus.

Description : What are Killed (inactivated) vaccines?

Last Answer : When safe live vaccines are not available, either because attenuated strains have not been developed or else because reversion to wild type occurs too readily, it may be possible to use an ... site. However, the same disadvantages of poor immunogenicity and the need for multiple boosters apply. 

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Description : Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : B. Cyclosporine

Description : What is true of thalidomide: A. It exerts antitumour activity in some solid malignant tumours B. It ameliorates cancer associated cachexia C. It exerts antileprotic action D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It ameliorates cancer associated cachexia

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Description : Mesna is administered with cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide to: A. Potentiate their cytotoxic action B. Retard their renal excretion C. Block their emetic action D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Last Answer : D. Ameliorate cystitis caused by them

Description : Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. 5-Fluorouracil

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Description : The following is true about use of prednisolone in malignant diseases except: A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia B. It is used in Hodgkin’s disease C. It controls hypercalcaemia in patients with bony metastasis D. It affords symptomatic relief in most cancer patients

Last Answer : A. It is curative in acute childhood leukaemia

Description : Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea

Last Answer : B. Procarbazine

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : The characteristic toxicity of doxorubicin is: A. Kidney damage B. Liver damage C. Cardiomyopathy D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of docetaxel: A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer B. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer C. It is effective only in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The following cytotoxic drug acts by inhibiting depolymerization of tubulin and thus producing abnormal arrays of microtubules: A. Paclitaxel B. Vinblastine C. Etoposide D. Mitoxantrone (p. 774) 60.9 C 60.10 B 60.11 D 60.12 A Ai

Last Answer : A. Paclitaxel

Description : Vinca alkaloids exert antitumor activity by: A. Activating topoisomerase II to cause breaks in DNA strands B. Crosslinking DNA strands C. Inhibiting DNA mediated RNA synthesis D. Inhibiting polymerization of tubulin to form intracellular microtubules

Last Answer : D. Inhibiting polymerization of tubulin to form intracellular microtubules

Description : The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Last Answer : B. Vincristine

Description : Methotrexate has the following attributes except: A. It is cell cycle specific and kills cells in the S phase B. Its toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structures C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects D. It is the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma

Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

Description : The most important target of action of chlorambucil is: A. Myeloid tissue B. Lymphoid tissue C. Neural tissue D. Skin

Last Answer : B. Lymphoid tissue

Description : The following is true of cyclophosphamide except: A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contact B. It is a prodrug C. It has marked immunosuppressant property D. It frequently causes alopecia and cystitis

Last Answer : A. It is highly reactive and a vesicant on contac

Description : Alkylating agents exert cytotoxic action by inducing: A. Breakage of DNA strand B. Cross linking of DNA strands C. Abnormal pairing of purine and pyrimidine bases D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of ... than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Description : Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by chemotherapy: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Colorectal carcinoma

Last Answer : B. Choriocarcinoma

Description : Praziquantel is effective against the following helminth(s): A. Taenia saginata B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Schistosomes D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is: A. Albendazole B. Niclosamide C. Praziquantel D. Ivermectin

Last Answer : A. Albendazole

Description : For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with ... C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Last Answer : B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide

Description : A saline purgative is recommended following: A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation B. Mebendazole for roundworm infestation C. Pyrantel pamoate for hookworm infestation D. Albendazole for whipworm infestation (Trichuriasis

Last Answer : A. Niclosamide for tapeworm infestation

Description : Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

Description : What is true of ivermectin: A. It is the most effective drug for strongyloidosis B. It is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis C. It can be used to treat pediculosis D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Which anthelmintic drug acts through a specific glutamate gated Cl– ion channel found only in nematodes: A. Ivermectin B. Niclosamide C. Pyrantel pamoate D. Praziquantel

Last Answer : A. Ivermectin

Description : Select the drug that is used orally to treat scabies: A. Permethrin B. Ivermectin C. Praziquantel D. Crotamiton

Last Answer : B. Ivermectin

Description : The drug of choice for tropical eosinophilia is: A. Carbamazepine B. Diethyl carbamazine citrate C. Carbetapentane D. Clomiphene citrate

Last Answer : B. Diethyl carbamazine citrate

Description : The effects of diethyl carbamazine citrate in filariasis include the following except: A. Rapid symptomatic relief in acute filarial attack B. Renders filarial patients noninfective to mosquitoes ... Prolonged treatment may achieve radical cure by killing adult filarial worms lodged in lymphatics

Last Answer : C. Prolonged treatment induces regression of filarial elephantiasis

Description : Diethyl carbamazine citrate has the following action in filariasis: A. Rapidly kills adult filarial worms and stops production of microfilariae B. Kills circulating microfilariae C. Kills microfilariae present in nodules and serous fluids D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilariae

Last Answer : D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilaria

Description : Drug/drugs effective in filariasis include: A. Ivermectin B. Albendazole C. Diethyl carbamazine citrate D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions

Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale

Description : A child has been brought with intestinal obstruction due to clumping of roundworms. Select the anthelmintic which administered by intragastric tube can relax the ascarids and relieve the obstruction: A. Levamisole B. Mebendazole C. Pyrantel pamoate D. Piperazine

Last Answer : D. Piperazine

Description : The following anthelmintic has been found to be safe during pregnancy: A. Thiabendazole B. Piperazine C. Albendazole D. Pyrantel pamoate

Last Answer : B. Piperazine

Description : Anthelmintic action of piperazine is due to: A. Interference with ATP generation in the worm B. Blockade of glucose uptake by the worm C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action D. Depolarization of nematode muscle by activating nicotinic receptors

Last Answer : C. Hyperpolarization of nematode muscle by GABA agonistic action

Description : Piperazine antagonises the anthelmintic action of the following drug: A. Pyrantel pamoate B. Mebendazole C. Albendazole D. Niclosamide

Last Answer : A. Pyrantel pamoate

Description : Select the condition for which 3 days treatment with pyrantel pamoate is recommended in place of single dose therapy for others: A. Ascariasis B. Ancylostomiasis C. Necatoriasis D. Enterobiasis

Last Answer : C. Necatoriasis