Which of the following pubertal event would occur even in the absence of ovarian estrogen production: a) Thelarche. b) Menarche. c) Pubarche. d) Skeletal growth. e) Vaginal cornification.

Which of the following pubertal event would occur even  in the absence of ovarian estrogen production:
a) Thelarche.
b) Menarche.
c) Pubarche.
d) Skeletal growth.
e) Vaginal cornification.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c) Pubarche.
by

Related questions

Menarche usually occurs at age of: a) 8 and 10 years. b) 11 and 13 years. c) 14 and 16 years. d) 17 and 18 years. e) 18 and above.

Description : Menarche usually occurs at age of: a) 8 and 10 years. b) 11 and 13 years. c) 14 and 16 years. d) 17 and 18 years. e) 18 and above.

Last Answer : b) 11 and 13 years.

The most common symptom of endometrial hyperplasia is: a) Vaginal discharge. b) Vaginal bleeding. c) Amenorrhea. d) Pelvic pain. e) Abdominal distention.

Description : The most common symptom of endometrial hyperplasia is: a) Vaginal discharge. b) Vaginal bleeding. c) Amenorrhea. d) Pelvic pain. e) Abdominal distention.

Last Answer : b) Vaginal bleeding.

A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Septic induced abortion. b) Twin pregnancy. c) Gestational trophoblastic disease. d) Ectopic pregnancy. e) Fibroid uterus.

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A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is: a) Ampulla. b) Isthmus. c) Fimbrial end. d) Abdomin. e) Cervix.

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Last Answer : a) Uterosacral ligaments.

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Last Answer : a) Torsion.

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Last Answer : c) Polycystic ovarian disease.

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Last Answer : d) Fibroid uterus.

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Last Answer : d) Honey moon cystitis.

28 years old woman with previous history of having baby with Down’s Syndrome is now 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following would you suggest to her: a) Amniocentesis. b) Obstetric ultrasound. c) Chorionic villus sampling. d) Fetal blood sampling. e) Wait till eighteen weeks for detailed ultrasound and amniocentesis.

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Last Answer : c) 2-7 days.

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A 28 year old patient complains of amenorrhea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Kallman’s Syndrome. b) Turner’s Syndrome. c) Asherman’s Syndrome. d) Pelvic inflammatory disease. e) Anorexia nervosa.

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The maximum number of oogonia are formed at what age of female life: a) One month intrauterine. b) Five month intrauterine. c) At birth. d) At puberty. e) At 21 years of age.

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A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing, laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of: a) Fistula. b) Stress incontinence. c) Urge incontinence. d) Urethral diverticulum. e) Urinary tract infection.

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Last Answer : b) Stress incontinence.

The most common cause of rectovaginal fistula is: a) Obstetrical. b) Irradiation of the pelvis. c) Carcinoma. d) Crohn’s disease. e) Endometriosis.

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Last Answer : a) Obstetrical.

A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be: a) Continued observation. b) Endometrial biopsy. c) Hysterectomy. d) Pelvic ultrasonography. e) Laparoscopy.

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Last Answer : continued observation is required in such a case as the patient is stable

A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past three months. Your first investigation should be: a) Dilatation & Curettage. b) Cone biopsy of cervix. c) Pap smear. d) Colposcopy. e) Laparoscopy.

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Last Answer : c) Pap smear.

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Women complaining of milky whitish discharge with fishy odour. No history of itching. Most likely diagnosis is: a) Bacterial vaginosis. b) Trichomoniasis. c) Candidiasis. d) Malignancy. e) Urinary tract infection.

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A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills is: a) Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH. b) Inducing endometrial atrophy. c) Increasing cervical mucous hostility. d) Inducing endometritis. e) Inhibiting prolactin.

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Last Answer : a) Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.

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Last Answer : d) Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.

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Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

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Last Answer : (c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane.

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Last Answer : A. It is used as a reserve drug for refractory breast and ovarian cancer

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The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to (a) the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band (b) extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band (c) the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band (d) the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band.

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How is menarche different from menopause? -Science

Description : How is menarche different from menopause? -Science

Last Answer : The first occurrence of menstruation at the age of 12 in females is called menarche. Menarche is the beginning of the reproductive life of a girl. Menstruation stops when a woman reaches the age ... called the menopause. Thus, reproductive life of a woman starts at menarche and ends at menopause.

Assertion : Menarche starts around the age of puberty . Reason : After birth oocyte is matured and developed to form Graafian follicle .

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The major etiological factor responsible for Class II division 2 malocclusion in Angle’s classification is:** A. Thumb sucking B. Growth discrepancy C. Tongue thrust habit D. Tooth to jaw size discrepancy E. Skeletal cause (discrepancy)

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Last Answer : E. Skeletal cause (discrepancy)