Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : Following a sudden decompression at 30,000 ft, the time of useful consciousness is
Last Answer : 30 seconds
Description : The time of useful consciousness for an individual experiencing rapid decompression at an altitude of 25,000 ft is
Last Answer : 2 minutes
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should
Last Answer : land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : The time useful consciousness when suffering a decompression at 40,000
Last Answer : 12 seconds
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : Decompression sickness is caused by
Last Answer : nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubble in the body tissues
Description : You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?
Last Answer : I am not very religious but I think I would pray.
Description : What are the times of useful consciousness at 20,000 ft (moderate activity)
Last Answer : 5 minutes
Description : The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at: a. 8,000ft b. 10,000ft c. 13,000ft d. 14,000ft
Last Answer : b. 10,000ft
Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate
Last Answer : B. Climb
Description : What controls cabin pressurization
Last Answer : B. Outflow valve
Description : If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure
Last Answer : b. Climb
Description : What controls cabin pressurisation? a. ECS pack mass flow controller b. Outflow valve c. Engine bleed valve d. Inflow valve
Last Answer : b. Outflow valve
Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions
Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
Description : Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum ... time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry
Last Answer : a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation
Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain
Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body
Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : Disorientation is more likely when pilot is
Last Answer : letter b. – 1,2 and 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can
Last Answer : return to flying duties after a suitable course treatment is complete
Description : A pilot suffering disorientation should
Last Answer : line up with visual reference (e.g. Horizon)
Description : A pilot can improve probability of detecting other aircraft by
Last Answer : minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : The co pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the commanders decision
Last Answer : False
Description : What is the absolute minimum time a pilot should stop drinking before flying
Last Answer : 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : What should a pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC
Last Answer : instruments
Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side
Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus
Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo
Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted
Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted
Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments
Last Answer : d. Instruments
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct
Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False
Last Answer : b. False
Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions d. Rely on the checklist for all procedures
Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:
Last Answer : make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.
Description : If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:
Last Answer : 30 mins
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:
Last Answer : may proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : . If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training
Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code
Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code
Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft
Last Answer : a. Pilot in command
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : The most likely cause of brake fade is: a. Oil or grease on the brake drums b. Worn stators c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure d. The brake pads overheating
Last Answer : d. The brake pads overheating