The nurse recommends which of the following types of therapeutic baths for its antipruritic action? a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching associated with a dermatologic disorder.

The nurse recommends which of the following types of
therapeutic baths for its antipruritic action?
a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal)
Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching
associated with a dermatologic disorder.
b) Sodium bicarbonate (baking soda)
Baking soda baths are cooling but dangerous. The tub gets very
slippery and a bath mat must be used in the tub.
c) Water
Water baths have the same effect as wet dressings, not known to
counteract itching.
d) Saline
Saline baths have the same effects as saline dressings, not known to
counteract itching.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal)
Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching
associated with a dermatologic disorder.
by

Related questions

43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Description : 43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Last Answer : A. “It seems that you are worried. Which matter to you more? What people will say or getting relief from your pain?”

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

56. The nurse is aware that acromegaly is a condition when growth hormone occurs in excess in adulthood or after epiphyses of the long bones have fused. The following are the typical features of the disorder except

Description : 56. The nurse is aware that acromegaly is a condition when growth hormone occurs in excess in adulthood or after epiphyses of the long bones have fused. The following are the typical features of the disorder except

Last Answer : C. The client grows taller

When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b) 2” Insertion of the catheter 2 inches is inadequate. c) 4” Insertion of the catheter 4 inches is excessive and not recommended. d) 5” Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Description : When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3 The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b ... and not recommended. d) 5 Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Last Answer : a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches.

Follicular dilation involving the nose and portions of the cheeks, erythema, papules, and pustules are classic signs of this dermatologic disorder. A. acne cosmetica B. acne pustulosa C. acne rosacea D. acne vulgaris

Description : Follicular dilation involving the nose and portions of the cheeks, erythema, papules, and pustules are classic signs of this dermatologic disorder. A. acne cosmetica B. acne pustulosa C. acne rosacea D. acne vulgaris

Last Answer : Ans: C

To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

Description : To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin ... gases Arterial blood gases assess the adequacy of oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base status.

Last Answer : a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that ... rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

Description : When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi's sarcoma. Kaposi's sarcoma is ... syphilis. A painless chancre or ulcerated lesion is a typical finding in the patient with syphilis.

Last Answer : a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Description : Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by ... Endolymphatic hydrops refers to dilation in the endolymmphatic space associated with Meniere's disease.

Last Answer : a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

Description : Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse ... avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).

Last Answer : a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

85. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?

Description : 85. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?

Last Answer : D. Informs the surgeon that sponge count has not been completed

78. Nurse Nora is assigned on PM shift for the month of June. She requested the head nurse if she can be on night or morning instead to be able to tutor her 2 sons in the elementary. The head nurse emphasized that it is her turn to go on PM duty. The action of the head nurse exemplifies which of the following?

Description : 78. Nurse Nora is assigned on PM shift for the month of June. She requested the head nurse if she can be on night or morning instead to be able to tutor her 2 sons in the elementary. The head ... it is her turn to go on PM duty. The action of the head nurse exemplifies which of the following?

Last Answer : A. Authority

77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only. Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Description : 77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a ... next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Last Answer : A. Justice

38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Description : 38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Last Answer : C. Explore the possible reason why the client refuses the prescribed medication

A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Description : A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Last Answer : A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master’s program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John’s hospital and was accepted. Since her assumption to office, she has been signing documents as master’s graduate affixing “RN, MAN” to her name. the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

Description : Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master's program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John's hospital and ... . the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

Last Answer : A. Misrepresentation

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and immediate action? A. Stop the intern and do the catheterization yourself B. Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Description : When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and ... . Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Last Answer : B. Offer to change the catheter

Nurse Mercy is setting up for an emergency caesarian section. The linen packs were damp although these were just taken from the sterilizer. The nurse’s appropriate action is A. Bring the linen packs back to the Central Supply section for quality control B. Change the damp linen pack C. Open the linen pack and allow to dry D. Do not use the damp linen

Description : Nurse Mercy is setting up for an emergency caesarian section. The linen packs were damp although these were just taken from the sterilizer. The nurse's appropriate action is A. Bring the linen packs back to the ... linen pack C. Open the linen pack and allow to dry D. Do not use the damp linen

Last Answer : D. Do not use the damp linen

Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient’s activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. b) .5 to 1 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. c) 2.5 to 3 An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. d) .25 to .75 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Description : Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient's activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT ... value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Last Answer : a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage.

Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult. b) Teenagers Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific, and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health. c) Children In general, the compliance of children depends on the compliance of their parents. d) Middle-aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Description : Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are ... -aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Last Answer : a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.

The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Description : The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except: A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles D. Good antipruritic action

Last Answer : D. Good antipruritic action

What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Description : What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Last Answer : Your question presumes that 21st cenury standards were applied in the 19th century. There was no certification of nurses until late in the 19th century. Florence Nightingale, the mother of Nursing didn; ... in 1890 was vastlly different from nursing in 1810. But both were in the 19th century.

If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Description : If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Last Answer : Compassion and a cheerful and drama free personality. They care, and they’re patient, no matter how difficult their day is, you will never know it. A great nurse knows to quit if they burn out and start hating their job.

What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Description : What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Last Answer : Drawing blood without digging a hole in the patient’s arm.

Any words of advice for a new grad nurse?

Description : Any words of advice for a new grad nurse?

Last Answer : answer:My daughter is a nurse. She was given bad advise on the first job she landed. It was at the Tennessee State Prison!! This is the worst possible place for a nurse, especially a new nurse, to begin her ... she moved to Seattle. This was not a safe job for her or for you. Keep this in mind. jp

Should I change surgeons if I have a problem with his nurse?

Description : Should I change surgeons if I have a problem with his nurse?

Last Answer : I don't believe you to be over-reacting. Talk with your surgeon. You need to be as relaxed and comfortable going in as you can. This is outrageous. Please, please don't go under the knife ... There is nothing wrong with your thinking. PM me if you'd like. I have recent experience with surgery.

I removed my own IV and a hospital nurse went bonkers. Is it so dangerous?

Description : I removed my own IV and a hospital nurse went bonkers. Is it so dangerous?

Last Answer : I agree with you. When I’m put in the hospital, I get IVs a lot. I’ve taken them out on my own plenty of times..and never hurt myself. I think they freak it because you hurting yourself or doing that can get them in trouble, fired, or even sued.

Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Description : Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Last Answer : The Dept of Labor produces a document called the Occupational Outlook Handbook that compares projections of salaries, the types of training required, anticipated markets for various services etc. Check out: http://www.bls.gov/OCO/

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

Description : When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field ... . d) urgent care. Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.

Last Answer : a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described ... of tissue due to insufficient blood supply and may be associated with steroid use.

Last Answer : a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Description : The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression ... contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.

Last Answer : a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

Description : The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin ... A broken cast should be reported to the physician; the patient should not attempt to fix it.

Last Answer : a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.