A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Flecainide (d) Propranolol (e) Quinidine

1 Answer

Answer :

Ans: A

Related questions

Description : Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Flecainide

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : Which of the following drugs is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (a) Digoxin (b) Quinidine (c) Propranolol (d) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : The following drug is preferred for termination as well as prophylaxis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia: A. Digoxin B. Verapamil C. Propranolol D. Quinidine

Last Answer : B. Verapami

Description : The following drug terminates paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia rapidly, but cannot be used to prevent its recurrences: A. Verapamil B. Adenosine C. Propranolol D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Adenosine

Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Last Answer : Ans: E

Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Last Answer : Ans: E

Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

Last Answer : A. Lignocaine

Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin ? (a) Digoxin antibodies (b) Lidocaine (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Quinidine

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: A. Lignocaine B. Propranolol C. Quinidine D. Verapamil

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Description : Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except (a) Bronchial relaxation (b) Decreases intestinal motility (c) Increased renal blood flow (d) Mydriasis (e) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

Description : A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can ... Increased atrial contractility (c) Increased PR interval on the ECG (d) Headaches (e) Tachycardia

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : Propranolol is useful in all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Familial tremor (c) Hypertension (d) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy (e) Partial atrioverntricular heart block

Last Answer : Ans: E

Description : A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in ... prescription for (a) Atropine (b) Clonidine (c) Hydralazine (d) Neostigmine (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically (a) Increases action potential duration (b) Increases contractility (c) Increses PR interval (d) Reduces abnormal automaticity (e) Reduces resting potential

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following? (a) Cinchonism (b) Constipation (c) Lupus erythematosus (d) Increase in digoxin clearance (e) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ? (a) Starting administration of captopril (b) Starting administration of quinidine (c) Hyperkalemia (d) Hypermagnesemia (e) Hypocalcemia

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine? (a) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium (b) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine (c) Increased skeleton muscle ... by neostigmine (d) Tachycardia caused by exercise (e) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Last Answer : Ans: E

Description : A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is (a) Enalapril (b) Losartan (c) Minoxidil (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that (a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors (b) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors (c) It causes pronounced tachycardia (d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline (a) Bronchodilation (b) Lipolysis (c) Muscle tremor (d) Mydriasis

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ? (a) Amyl nitrite (b) Hydralazine (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Nifedipine (e) Nimodipine

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug accumulates in the body for a very long time: A. Procainamide B. Mexiletine C. Bretylium D. Amiodarone

Last Answer : D. Amiodarone

Description : Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination? A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect. B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant ... anticoagulant effect of warfarin. D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.

Last Answer : C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. 

Description : Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings (a) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate (b) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on ... the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase (d) Cause mydriasis (e) Decreases blood glucose levels

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : The major common determinant of myocardial oxygen consumption is (a) Blood volume (b) Cardiac output (c) Diastolic blood pressure (d) Heart rate (e) Myocardial fiber tension

Last Answer : Ans: E

Description : Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects (a) Decreased heart rate (b) Decreased venous capacitance (c) Increased afterload (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: E

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in anaphylaxis associated with bronchospasm and hypotension ? (a) Cortisone (b) Epinephrine (c) Isoproterenol (d) Norepinephrine (e) Phenylephrine

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : When pupillary dilation-but not cycloplegia-is desired, a good choice is (a) Homatropine (b) Isoproterenol (c) Phenylephrine (d) Pilocarpine (e) Tropicamide

Last Answer : Ans: C

Description : A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is (a) Acetazolamide (b) Amiloride (c) Furosemide (d) Hydrochlorothiazide (e) Spironolactone

Last Answer : Ans: A

Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for (a) Conversion of auricular fibrillation to sinus rhythm (b) Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter (c) Termination of ventricular tachycardia (d) Prevention of recurrences of atrial and ventricular extrasystoles/tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: D

Description : Quinidine is now used primarily for: A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Last Answer : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia

Description : The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: A. Disopyramide B. Quinidine C. Procainamide D. Lignocaine

Last Answer : A. Disopyramide

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Last Answer : C. Esmolo

Description : In studies of the human body, which of the following terms is used to describe a very rapid heart rate or pulse rate? Is it: a) bradycardia b) tachycardia c) cardiosis d) myocardia

Last Answer : ANSWER: B -- TACHYCARDIA