Description : The following is a selective α2 adrenoceptor antagonist: A. Prazosin B. Phentolamine C. Yohimbine D. Clonidine
Last Answer : C. Yohimbine
Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Hydralazine
Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin
Last Answer : B. Clonidine
Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri
Last Answer : C. Clonidine
Description : Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Clonidine B. Captopril C. Verapamil D. Prazosin
Last Answer : B. Captopril
Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve
Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline
Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation
Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy
Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release
Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location
Description : Yohimbine is an antagonist of ______ receptors. (a) a1 (b) a2 (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Losartan is a: A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist D. AT1 receptor partial agonist
Last Answer : A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist
Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol
Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen
Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation
Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms
Description : A drug that decreases blood pressure and has analgesic and spasmolytic effects when given intrathecally is (a) Atenolol (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Nitroprusside (e) Prazosin
Description : Choose the correct statement about latanoprost: A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma B. It is a selective α1 blocker used in benign hypertrophy of prostate C. It is a 5-α- ... reduce the size of enlarged prostate gland D. It is a PGE2 analogue used intravaginally for cervical priming
Last Answer : A. It is a PGF2α derivative used in glaucoma
Description : Phentolamine test is considered positive for pheochromocytoma if there is a: A. Rise in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and 25 mm Hg diastolic B. Rise in systolic but fall in diastolic BP C. Fall in both ... 20 mm Hg D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
Last Answer : D. Fall in BP by more than 35 mm Hg systolic and more than 25 mm Hg diastolic
Description : The primary reason for preferring phentolamine as the α adrenergic blocker for performing diagnostic test for pheochromocytoma is: A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade B. It equally ... It is the most potent α blocker D. It has no additional β adrenergic blocking property
Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and short lasting α-adrenergic blockade
Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias
Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity
Description : The β3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins
Last Answer : A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol
Description : The β 3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins
Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide
Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine
Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril
Last Answer : A. Clonidine
Description : The following antihypertensive is used topically to treat alopacia areata: A. Hydralazine B. Prazosin C. Minoxidil D. Indapamide
Last Answer : C. Minoxidil
Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect
Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation
Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors
Description : The following drug has been found to improve urine flow in elderly males with benign prostatic hypertrophy: A. Nifedipine B. Prazosin C. Disopyramide D. Imipramine
Last Answer : B. Prazosin
Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide
Last Answer : A. Prazosin
Description : Which of the following feature(s) limit(s) the use of prazosin as a first line antihypertensive drug: A. Higher incidence of disturbing side effects B. Unfavourable metabolic effects C. Development of tolerance when used alone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Choose the most suitable antihypertensive drug for a 45-year-old male company executive who has a travelling job. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, and he is a diabetic ... → rebound hypertension. Hydrochlorothiazide: May worsen diabetes; more likely to produce weakness, fatigue and impotenc
Last Answer : B. Enalapril
Description : Tricyclic antidepressants abolish the antihypertensive action of the following drug: A. Enalapril B. Clonidine C. Atenolol D. Diltiazem
Description : A. It is a clonidine congener used in spasticity due to stroke or spinal injury B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors C. It inhibits release of excitatory amino-acids in spinal interneurones D. It reduces muscle spasms without producing weaknes
Last Answer : B. It reduces muscle tone by activating GABAB receptors
Description : Which of the following is a steroid 5α-reductase inhibitor that has been found useful in benign prostatic hypertrophy and male pattern baldness: A. Flutamide B. Finasteride C. Prazosin D. Minoxidil
Last Answer : B. Finasteride
Description : In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the following drug can vitiate glycaemia control: A. Prednisolone B. Prazosin C. Paracetamol D. Phenytoin
Last Answer : A. Prednisolone
Description : Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy without affecting prostate size: A. Amphetamine B. Prazosin C. Finasteride D. Goserelin
Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine
Description : Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension
Last Answer : D. To reduce intraocular tension
Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route
Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin
Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug
Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Description : Select the opioid antagonist that is preferred for long term opioid blockade therapy of post addicts: A. Nalorphine B. Naloxone C. Naltrexone D. Nalbuphine
Last Answer : C. Naltrexone
Description : The following is true of buprenorphine: A. It is an agonist-antagonist type of opioid analgesic B. Its subjective effects are different from those of morphine C. Naloxone is largely ineffective in reversing its effects D. It produces mydriasis
Last Answer : C. Naloxone is largely ineffective in reversing its effects
Description : Which of the following is an agonist-antagonist type of opioid analgesic: A. Pethidine B. Pentazocine C. Fentanyl D. Buprenorphine
Last Answer : B. Pentazocine
Description : Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men: A. Yohimbine B. Papaverine C. Alprostadil D. Sildenafil
Last Answer : D. Sildenafil