The characteristic toxicity of doxorubicin is: A. Kidney damage B. Liver damage C. Cardiomyopathy D. Pulmonary fibrosis

The characteristic toxicity of doxorubicin is:
A. Kidney damage
B. Liver damage
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Cardiomyopathy
by

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Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

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Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage

Last Answer : B. Visual defects

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Description : Atropine is contraindicated in: A. Pulmonary embolism B. Digitalis toxicity C. Iridocyclitis D. Raised intraocular tension

Last Answer : D. Raised intraocular tension

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Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

Description : Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

Last Answer : DefinitionIdiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is scarring or thickening of the lungs without a known cause.Alternative NamesIdiopathic diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis; IPF; Pulmonary fibrosis; Cryptogenic fibrosing ... unknown substance. "Idiopathic" means no cause can be found. The disease oc

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Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Last Answer : Ans: E

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Last Answer : B. Acidosis

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Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

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Description : Adverse effects of ketoconazole include the following except: A. Gynaecomastia B. Oligozoospermia C. Kidney damage D. Menstrual irregularities

Last Answer : C. Kidney damage

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Description : Glucose entry into the cells of the following organ/ tissue is highly dependent on the presence of insulin: A. Brain B. Liver C. Adipose tissue D. Kidney tubules

Last Answer : C. Adipose tissue

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

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Do ibuprofen and alcohol together cause liver or kidney damage?

Description : Do ibuprofen and alcohol together cause liver or kidney damage?

Last Answer : Yes it can cause liver bleeds. Also mega doses can cause damage alone.

Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes (A) Skeletal damage (B) Gastrointestinal problem (C) Dermal and nervous problems (D) Liver/Kidney problems

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Last Answer : (D) Liver/Kidney problems 

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Last Answer : C. Folic acid reverses its toxic effects

The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression

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The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is: A. Methemoglobinemia B. Haemolysis C. Hepatitis D. Dermatitis

Description : The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is: A. Methemoglobinemia B. Haemolysis C. Hepatitis D. Dermatitis

Last Answer : B. Haemolysi

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

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The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline

Description : The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline

Last Answer : D. Tetracycline

Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Description : Folinic acid is specifically indicated for: A. Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication B. Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate C. Pernicious anaemia D. Anaemia associated with renal failure

Last Answer : C. Pernicious anaemia

The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide

Last Answer : C. Quinidine

Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for counteracting ventricular extrasystoles due to digoxin toxicity: A. Lignocaine B. Quinidine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone

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Last Answer : A. Lignocaine

Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Potassium therapy tends to counteract the cardiac toxicity of digitalis by: A. Reducing the affinity of sarcolemal Na+ K+ATPase for digitalis B. Suppressing ectopic automaticity enhanced by digitalis C. Promoting A-V conduction D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min ... accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide

Description : The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long-term use is: A. Thioridazine B. Haloperidol C. Flupenthixol D. Pimozide

Last Answer : A. Thioridazine

Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Description : Drug cumulation is the basis of organ toxicity of the following drug when used for prolonged periods: A. Prednisolone B. Chloroquine C. Aspirin D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : B. Chloroquine

Fluconazole is more effective than intraconazole in the following systemic fungal disease: A. Pulmonary histoplasmosis B. Cryptococcal meningitis C. Nonmeningeal blastomycosis D. Disseminated sporotrichosis

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Last Answer : B. Cryptococcal meningitis

A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Last Answer : . Started immediately

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Description : Parenteral furosemide is an alternative diuretic to mannitol in the following condition: A. Pulmonary edema B. Cirrhotic edema C. Cerebral edema D. Cardiac edema

Last Answer : C. Cerebral edema

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases