Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease
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1 Answer

Answer :

C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation
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The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect

Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about dofetilide: A. It is a pure class III antiarrhythmic B. It has no adrenergic/cholinergic receptor blocking property C. It selectively depresses the rapid component of delayed rectifier K+ current in myocardial fibres D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in parkinson's disease C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property

Description : Select the correct statement abut donepezil: A. It is a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in glaucoma B. It is a catechol-'O'-methyl transferase inhibitor used as adjuvant in ... affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease D. It is a synthetic cannabinoid with antiemetic property

Last Answer : C. It is a cerebroselective anticholinesterase that affords symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's diseas

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Parasympathetic ganglia include: a. Gasserian ganglion b. otic ganglion c. stellate ganglion d. celiac ganglion

Description : Parasympathetic ganglia include: a. Gasserian ganglion b. otic ganglion c. stellate ganglion d. celiac ganglion

Last Answer : otic ganglion

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter at: a. sweat glands b. the adrenal medulla c. parasympathetic ganglia d. all above

Description : Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter at: a. sweat glands b. the adrenal medulla c. parasympathetic ganglia d. all above

Last Answer : all above

With regard to the autonomic nervous system: a. the dorsal root ganglia is made up mainly of the cell bodies of the sympathetic nerves b. the preganglionic sympathetic fibres are usually longer than preganglionic parasympathetic fibres c. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at the ganglia of both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system d. botulin toxin blocks acetylcholine receptors

Description : With regard to the autonomic nervous system: a. the dorsal root ganglia is made up mainly of the cell bodies of the sympathetic nerves b. the preganglionic sympathetic fibres ... the ganglia of both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system d. botulin toxin blocks acetylcholine receptors

Last Answer : the dorsal root ganglia is made up mainly of the cell bodies of the sympathetic nerves

The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Description : The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Last Answer : A. Postganglionic parasympathetic

The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Description : The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Last Answer : A. Postganglionic parasympathetic

The following are true about acetylcholine receptors: a. receptors at all autonomic ganglia are nicotinic b. receptors at the skeletal neuromuscular junction are muscarinic c. acetylcholine receptors in the autonomic ganglia can be selectively blocked by atropine d. acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine

Description : The following are true about acetylcholine receptors: a. receptors at all autonomic ganglia are nicotinic b. receptors at the skeletal neuromuscular junction are muscarinic c. ... atropine d. acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine

Last Answer : acetylcholine receptors in the neuromuscular junction can be selectively blocked by tubocurarine

The following are true about the muscarinic receptors: a. they are found at the postganglionic parasympathetic synapses b. they can be selectively blocked by atropine c. M1 muscarinic receptors are found in the brain d. all above

Description : The following are true about the muscarinic receptors: a. they are found at the postganglionic parasympathetic synapses b. they can be selectively blocked by atropine c. M1 muscarinic receptors are found in the brain d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Description : Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Last Answer : C. Candesartan

The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease C. It affords measurable improvement in Alzheimer's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Description : The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in ... 's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Last Answer : B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease

Hepatotoxicity has markedly restricted use of the following cerebroselective anticholinesterase in Alzheimer's disease: A. Rivastigmine B. Tacrine C. Galantamine D. Donepezil

Description : Hepatotoxicity has markedly restricted use of the following cerebroselective anticholinesterase in Alzheimer's disease: A. Rivastigmine B. Tacrine C. Galantamine D. Donepezil

Last Answer : B. Tacrine

The neurotransmitter system in the brain most affected in Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Glutaminergic B. Gabaergic C. Dopaminergic D. Cholinergic

Description : The neurotransmitter system in the brain most affected in Alzheimer’s disease is: A. Glutaminergic B. Gabaergic C. Dopaminergic D. Cholinergic

Last Answer : D. Cholinergic

Which of the following is a relatively cerebroselective anticholinesterase found to afford symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease: A. Donepezil B. Gemfibrozil C. Pyridostigmine D. Pyritinol

Description : Which of the following is a relatively cerebroselective anticholinesterase found to afford symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease: A. Donepezil B. Gemfibrozil C. Pyridostigmine D. Pyritinol

Last Answer : A. Donepezil

Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric mucosa: A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Carbenoxolone sodium D. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate

Description : Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric mucosa: A. Misoprostol B. Sucralfate C. Carbenoxolone sodium D. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate

Last Answer : A. Misoprostol

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Organic nitrates have predominantly venodilator action because: A. They are selectively concentrated in veins B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates C. Venous smooth muscle has greater capacity to relax D. All of the above are correct

Description : Organic nitrates have predominantly venodilator action because: A. They are selectively concentrated in veins B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates C. Venous smooth muscle has greater capacity to relax D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : B. Veins express larger quantities of enzymes that generate nitric oxide from nitrates

Is there a scientific connection between pot smoking and Alzheimer's disease?

Description : Is there a scientific connection between pot smoking and Alzheimer's disease?

Last Answer : Pot smoking causes brain damage so yes it can lead to Alzheimer’s disease.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Where can I find education materials on smoking cessation?

Description : Where can I find education materials on smoking cessation?

Last Answer : You can go to www.aafp.org and they will give you all the information you need to quit smoking. You can also search other sites for quiting smoking and who offers the best program. You can also talk to your current doctor about there smoking cessation programs.

Smoking cessation medications?

Description : Smoking cessation medications?

Last Answer : Alternative NamesSmoking cessation - medications; Smokeless tobacco - medications; Medications for stopping tobaccoInformationNon-habit forming prescription medication may help you quit nicotine and tobacco and keep ... programsBUPROPION (Zybanà ®)Bupropion is a pill that may help decrease your c

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Description : General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Last Answer : D. Spinal cord

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Which of the following is true of counterregulatory symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia: A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin treatment C. They result from parasympathetic activation D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue

Description : Which of the following is true of counterregulatory symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia: A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin treatment C. They result from parasympathetic activation D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue

Last Answer : A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptom

Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure than after it C. It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical C. It is rapidly inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical

Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Last Answer : C. Domperidone

Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: A. Urokinase B. Streptokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C

Description : Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: A. Urokinase B. Streptokinase C. Alteplase D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C

Last Answer : C. Alteplase

Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Intrinsic pathway

The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is: A. Fluoxetine B. Amoxapine C. Desipramine D. Dothiepin

Description : The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is: A. Fluoxetine B. Amoxapine C. Desipramine D. Dothiepin

Last Answer : A. Fluoxetine

The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide

Description : The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase

Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Description : Which general anaesthetic selectively inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors: A. Thiopentone B. Halothane C. Desflurane D. Ketamine

Last Answer : D. Ketamine

The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Description : The α2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location

Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets: A. Thromboxane A2 B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Platelet activating factor D. Prostacyclin

Description : Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets: A. Thromboxane A2 B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine C. Platelet activating factor D. Prostacyclin

Last Answer : A. Thromboxane

The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Description : The α 2 adrenoceptors are: A. Located exclusively on the adrenergic nerve endings B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location C. Selectively activated by phenylephrine D. Selectively blocked by clonidine

Last Answer : B. Prejunctional, postjunctional as well as extrajunctional in location

Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria C. It is highly effective in acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about methenamine (hexamine): A. It acts by getting converted to mandelic acid in the urinary tract B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills ... acute urinary tract infections D. It is the preferred urinary antiseptic in patients with liver disease

Last Answer : B. It releases formaldehyde in acidic urine which inturn kills bacteria

Choose the correct statement(s) about terlipressin: A. It is a prodrug B. It is used to control bleeding from esophageal varices C. It is preferred for controlling bleeding in von Willebrand's disease D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about terlipressin: A. It is a prodrug B. It is used to control bleeding from esophageal varices C. It is preferred for controlling bleeding in von Willebrand's disease D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by enlargement of thyroid gland C. Its long term use in Grave's disease leads to ‘thyroid escape’ D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa stimulates fibroblast collagen synthesis c. IL-1 and TNFa have opposite effects on the healing of bone d. In human clinical trials, EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts

Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

All the following statements about Wilson’s disease are correct except (A) It is a genetic disease (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-type ATPase (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia and around cornea (D) Plasma copper level is increased in it

Description : All the following statements about Wilson’s disease are correct except (A) It is a genetic disease (B) The defect involves copper-dependent P-type ATPase (C) Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia and around cornea (D) Plasma copper level is increased in it

Last Answer : Answer : D