Which of the following is true of counterregulatory symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia: A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin treatment C. They result from parasympathetic activation D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue

Which of the following is true of counterregulatory
symptoms of insulin hypoglycaemia:
A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptoms
B. They are accentuated after long-term insulin
treatment
C. They result from parasympathetic activation
D. They manifest as hunger and fatigue
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. They generally appear before neuroglucopenic symptom
by

Related questions

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

The most common adverse reaction to insulin is: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipodystrophy C. Urticaria D. Angioedema

Description : The most common adverse reaction to insulin is: A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipodystrophy C. Urticaria D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Hypoglycaemia

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of TPN on the GI tract? a. Patients receiving TPN have an accentuated systemic response to endotoxin challenge compared to enterally fed volunteers b. TPN can result in disruption of intestinal microflora c. In experimental models, bacterial translocation from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure

Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid excretion C. It causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Description : Diazoxide is an effective hypotensive, but is not used in the long-term treatment of hypertension because: A. It impairs glucose tolerance by inhibiting insulin release B. It inhibits uric acid ... causes marked Na+ and water retention leading to development of tolerance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Description : Use of ritodrine to arrest premature labour can cause the following complications except: A. Tachycardia B. Fall in blood pressure C. Hypoglycaemia D. Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : C. Hypoglycaemia

Which of the following is a neuroglucopenic symptom of hypoglycaemia: A. Sweating B. Palpitation C. Tremor D. Abnormal behaviour

Description : Which of the following is a neuroglucopenic symptom of hypoglycaemia: A. Sweating B. Palpitation C. Tremor D. Abnormal behaviour

Last Answer : D. Type 2 diabetes patients not controlled by a biguanide drug

Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Description :  Antiinflammatory dose of aspirin given to diabetics is prone to cause: A. Hyperglycaemia B. Hypoglycaemia C. Ketoacidosis D. Alkalosis

Last Answer : B. Hypoglycaemia

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Description : Which of the following is Type B ADRS? a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine 

Which of the following regulates lipolysis in adipocytes? (A) Activation of fatty acid synthesis mediated by CAMP (B) Glycerol phosphorylation to prevent futile esterification of fatty acids (C) Activation of triglyceride lipase as a result of hormone stimulated increases in CAMP levels (D) Activation of CAMP production by Insulin

Description : Which of the following regulates lipolysis in adipocytes? (A) Activation of fatty acid synthesis mediated by CAMP (B) Glycerol phosphorylation to prevent futile esterification of fatty acids (C) ... result of hormone stimulated increases in CAMP levels (D) Activation of CAMP production by Insulin

Last Answer : Answer : C

A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Description : A patient of endogenous depression was put on imipramine therapy. After what interval the therapeutic effect is likely to manifest: A. Three days B. One week C. Three weeks D. Three months

Last Answer : C. Three weeks

Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Description : Choose the correct statement about nicotine: A. It selectively stimulates parasympathetic ganglia B. It has no clinical application C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation D. It is used in Alzheimer's disease

Last Answer : C. It is used as an aid during smoking cessation

A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Description : A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is: A. Insulin B. Mebendazole C. Prednisolone D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Mebendazole

Which one refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue? a. Instrumentation b. History c. Maturation d. Testing

Description : Which one refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue? a. Instrumentation b. History c. Maturation d. Testing

Last Answer : c. Maturation

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Description : Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes. C) Type I diabetes occurs as a result of destruction of the insulin-producing cells. D) One method of treating type II diabetes is exercise and a low-fat, low-sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Description : Which of the following statements is NOT true about diabetes mellitus? A) Type II diabetes is much more common than type I. B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II ... -sugar diet. E) Symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst, frequent urination, and glucose in the urine.

Last Answer : B) Insulin injections are required in both type I and type II diabetes.

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

Select the factor which indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures: A. Childhood epilepsy B. Partial seizures C. Treatment started soon after seizure onset D. Absence of EEG abnormality

Description : Select the factor which indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures: A. Childhood epilepsy B. Partial seizures C. Treatment started soon after seizure onset D. Absence of EEG abnormality

Last Answer : B. Partial seizures

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

All of the following statements about hypoglycin are true except (A) It is a plant toxin (B) It causes hypoglycaemia (C) It inhibits oxidation of short chain fatty acids (D) It inhibits oxidation of long chain fatty acids

Description : All of the following statements about hypoglycin are true except (A) It is a plant toxin (B) It causes hypoglycaemia (C) It inhibits oxidation of short chain fatty acids (D) It inhibits oxidation of long chain fatty acids

Last Answer : Answer : A

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

At therapeutic doses, actions of amphetamine include the following except: A. Prolongation of attention span B. Wakefulness C. Lowering of seizure threshold D. Delaying fatigue

Description : At therapeutic doses, actions of amphetamine include the following except: A. Prolongation of attention span B. Wakefulness C. Lowering of seizure threshold D. Delaying fatigue

Last Answer : C. Lowering of seizure threshold

At therapeutic doses, actions of amphetamine include the following except: A. Prolongation of attention span B. Wakefulness C. Lowering of seizure threshold D. Delaying fatigue

Description : At therapeutic doses, actions of amphetamine include the following except: A. Prolongation of attention span B. Wakefulness C. Lowering of seizure threshold D. Delaying fatigue

Last Answer : C. Lowering of seizure threshold

At therapeutic doses, actions of amphetamine include the following except: A. Prolongation of attention span B. Wakefulness C. Lowering of seizure threshold D. Delaying fatigue

Description : At therapeutic doses, actions of amphetamine include the following except: A. Prolongation of attention span B. Wakefulness C. Lowering of seizure threshold D. Delaying fatigue

Last Answer : C. Lowering of seizure threshold

In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Description : In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s): A. It is effective in nearly all cases B. Early abetment of fever and other symptoms C. Development of carrier state is unlikely D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Description : The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis

Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by enlargement of thyroid gland C. Its long term use in Grave's disease leads to ‘thyroid escape’ D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Description : ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Last Answer : D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect C. It can inhibit insulin release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Description : he following is true of nifedipine except: A. It can aggravate urine voiding difficulty in elderly males with prostatic hypertrophy B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to ... release from pancreas D. At high doses it can paradoxically increase the frequency of angina pectori

Last Answer : B. It promotes Na+ retention by a renal tubular action to cause ankle oedema as side effect

Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine

Description : Select the drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation: A. Nelfinavir B. Nevirapine C. Stavudine D. Didanosine

Last Answer : B. Nevirapine

3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Last Answer : A. Ondansetron

Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2

Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Description : The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Last Answer : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart

Low temperature oxidation and spontaneous combustion of freshly mined coal is accentuated, if (A) It contains large amount of volatile matter (B) It is stored in tall heaps (C) Smaller fines are stored in large quantity (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

Description : Low temperature oxidation and spontaneous combustion of freshly mined coal is accentuated, if (A) It contains large amount of volatile matter (B) It is stored in tall heaps (C) Smaller fines are stored in large quantity (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

Last Answer : (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

Green house effect is accentuated by (A) Deforestation (B) Rapid industrialisation (C) Increased transportation activity (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

Description : Green house effect is accentuated by (A) Deforestation (B) Rapid industrialisation (C) Increased transportation activity (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

Last Answer : (D) All (A), (B) and (C)

The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Description : The preferred class of drugs for long term treatment of severe anxiety disorder with intermittent panic attacks is: A. Phenothiazine (chlorpromazine like) B. Azapirone (buspirone like) C. β-blocker (propranolol like) D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

Last Answer : DD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (sertraline like)

The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Description : What is true of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs: A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy B. The disease does not recurr once they induce remission C. They are to be used life long D. Concurrent use of more than one disease modifying drug is not recommended

Last Answer : A. Their beneficial effect is manifest only after 1-3 months of therapy

Has stress ever caused you to manifest odd physical symptoms?

Description : Has stress ever caused you to manifest odd physical symptoms?

Last Answer : I once had a stomach ulcer; although it was a very real physical thing, and I’m told it was caused by a viral infection, I’m certain that stress contributed to it.

What are the typical symptoms of schizophrenia when it is starting to manifest?

Description : What are the typical symptoms of schizophrenia when it is starting to manifest?

Last Answer : Typical symptoms of emerging schizophrenia include erratic changes in mood, such as feeling very depressed or angry, having difficulty focusing, or sudden changes in behavior, such as drug use or ... clubs. To find out more about symptoms of early schizophrenia, visit schizophrenia.com/earlysigns.

Activation of IRS-1, PI-3 kinase and GRB2 is brought about by (A) Glucagon (B) Insulin (C) Prolactin (D) IGF-2

Description : Activation of IRS-1, PI-3 kinase and GRB2 is brought about by (A) Glucagon (B) Insulin (C) Prolactin (D) IGF-2

Last Answer : Answer : B

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month