The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are:
A. It is unstable in aqueous solution
B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus
and tissue fluids
C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
by

Related questions

Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Description : Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

That sulfonamides act by inhibiting folate synthesis in bacteria is supported by the following findings except: A. Paraaminobenzoic acid antagonises the action of sulfonamides B. Methionine antagonises the action of sulfonamides C. Purines and thymidine present in pus antagonise the action of sulfonamides D. Bacteria that utilise folic acid taken up from the medium are insensitive to sulfonamides

Description : That sulfonamides act by inhibiting folate synthesis in bacteria is supported by the following findings except: A. Paraaminobenzoic acid antagonises the action of sulfonamides B. Methionine antagonises ... . Bacteria that utilise folic acid taken up from the medium are insensitive to sulfonamides

Last Answer : B. Methionine antagonises the action of sulfonamides

The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Gentamicin

The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually resistant species, penicillin is not indicated c. Immediate operative intervention and aggressive resection of all involved tissues is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Description : If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually ... is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Identification of a necrotizing, soft tissue infection mandates immediate operative intervention with aggressive resection of all involved tissues and empiric ... remains without controlled trials demonstrating any additional benefits derived from hyperbaric oxygen therapy

The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial fibres occurs progressively with each contraction C. Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial ... +ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both A' and B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The antibacterial action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is characterized by: A. Concentration dependent rate of bacterial cell killing B. Concentration dependent prolonged postantibiotic effect C. More pronounced bactericidal effect in anaerobic medium D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : The antibacterial action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is characterized by: A. Concentration dependent rate of bacterial cell killing B. Concentration dependent prolonged postantibiotic effect C. More pronounced bactericidal effect in anaerobic medium D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its: A. Narrow spectrum of activity B. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction C. Short duration of action D. Neurotoxicity

Description : The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its: A. Narrow spectrum of activity B. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction C. Short duration of action D. Neurotoxicity

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction

Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart B. They have no effect on A-V conduction C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin

Description : The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: A. Benzathine penicillin B. Sodium penicillin C. Potassium penicillin D. Procaine penicillin

Last Answer : A. Benzathine penicillin

Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Description : Acidic urine augments the antibacterial action of the following drug: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin

Last Answer : D. Nitrofurantoin

The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Description : The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in ... locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Last Answer : B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning antimicrobial classes? a. Penicillins and cephalosporins share the compound structure of a b-lactam ring which binds to bacterial division plate proteins b. Tetracyclines and macrolides such as erythromycin inhibit bacterial ribosomal activity and therefore protein synthesis c. Aminoglycosides act in a similar fashion to tetracyclines and therefore are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically

Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because: A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzylpenicillin C. Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because: A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited ... multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : . Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites

Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Description : Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms

Morphine dependence is characterized by: A. Marked drug seeking behaviour B. Physical dependence without psychic dependence C. Physical as well as psychic dependence D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Morphine dependence is characterized by: A. Marked drug seeking behaviour B. Physical dependence without psychic dependence C. Physical as well as psychic dependence D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Description : Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate? (a) It is active against MRSA strains (b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia (c) ... fourth-generation cephalosporin (d) It decreases prothrombin time (e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis

Last Answer : Ans: E

Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life

In addition to fungi, amphotericin B is active against the following pathogen: A. Anaerobic bacteria B. Giardia C. Leishmania D. Rickettsiae

Description : In addition to fungi, amphotericin B is active against the following pathogen: A. Anaerobic bacteria B. Giardia C. Leishmania D. Rickettsiae

Last Answer : C. Leishmania

The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin

Last Answer : C. Clindamycin

Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct

Description : Neomycin is widely used as a topical antibiotic because: A. It is active against a wide range of bacteria causing superfecial infections B. It rarely causes contact sensitization C. It is poorly absorbed from the topical sites of application D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Description : Tetracyclines are active against the following gram negative bacteria: A. Salmonella typhi B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia pestis D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Yersinia pestis

Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Description : Nalidixic acid is primarily active against: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Gram positive bacteria D. Gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Gram negative bacteria

The most likely explanation of differing sensitivities of different bacteria to various penicillins is: A. Differing susceptibilities of the various penicillins to β-lactamases produced by different bacteria B. Differing affinities of penicillin binding proteins present in different bacteria towards various penicillins C. Differing penetrability of various penicillins into different bacteria D. Differing rates of cell wall synthesis by different bacteria

Description : The most likely explanation of differing sensitivities of different bacteria to various penicillins is: A. Differing susceptibilities of the various penicillins to β-lactamases produced by different ... into different bacteria D. Differing rates of cell wall synthesis by different bacteria

Last Answer : B. Differing affinities of penicillin binding proteins present in different bacteria towards various penicillins

A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ejection fraction is low. Which of the following lines of action is warranted: A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor B. Continue all medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Description : A patient of CHF was treated with furosemide and digoxin. He became symptom-free and is stable for the last 3 months with resting heart rate 68/min in sinus rhythm but left ventricular ... medication as before C. Continue the diuretic but stop digoxin D. Continue digoxin but stop the diuretic

Last Answer : A. Stop above medication and start an ACE inhibitor

The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

Description : The electrophysiological effects of digitalis on Purkinje fibres include the following except: A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential B. Decrease in the slope of phase-0 depolarization C. Increase in the rate of phase-4 depolarization D. Abbreviation of action potential duration

Last Answer : A. Enhancement of resting membrane potential

The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Description : The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Diethyl carbamazine citrate has the following action in filariasis: A. Rapidly kills adult filarial worms and stops production of microfilariae B. Kills circulating microfilariae C. Kills microfilariae present in nodules and serous fluids D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilariae

Description : Diethyl carbamazine citrate has the following action in filariasis: A. Rapidly kills adult filarial worms and stops production of microfilariae B. Kills circulating microfilariae C. Kills microfilariae present in nodules and serous fluids D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilariae

Last Answer : D. Promotes phagocytosis of circulating microfilaria

The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Description : The preparation of penicillin preferred for treatment of syphilis is: A. Sodium penicillin G B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Penicillin V D. Ampicillin

Last Answer : B. Benzathine penicillin G

Though penicillin G kills the causative organism, it is only of adjuvant value to other measures in: A. Diphtheria B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Syphilis D. Anthrax

Description : Though penicillin G kills the causative organism, it is only of adjuvant value to other measures in: A. Diphtheria B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis C. Syphilis D. Anthrax

Last Answer : A. Diphtheria

Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti

Description : Indicate the disease in which penicillin G continues to be used as first line treatment in all cases (unless contraindicated), because the causative organism has not developed resistance so far: A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis C. Staphylococcal abscess D. Haemophillus influenzae meningiti

Last Answer : B. Syphilis

If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected B. He can be given ampicillin safely C. He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Description : If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then: A. He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected ... oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

Last Answer : D. All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him

The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : A. Streptomycin

Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Description : Which of the following constitutes ‘drug abuse’: A. Physician prescribed use of penicillin G for the cure of viral fever B. Self administration of aspirin to relieve headache C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Repeated self administration of morphine to derive euphoria

The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Description : The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their: A. Plasma protein level is low B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature C. Glomerular filtration rate is low D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

Last Answer : D. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above