Description : Consent is free under section 14 if not caused by– A. coercion & undue influence B. fraud and misrepresentation C. mistake subject to the provisions of sections 20, 21 and 22 D. all of the above
Last Answer : D. all of the above
Description : Consent is free under section 14 if not caused by A. Coercion & undue influence B. Fraud and misrepresentation C. Mistake subject to the provisions of sections 20, 21 and 22 D. All the above
Last Answer : D. All the above
Description : Sonia contracts with Anshul to buy a necklace, believing it is made of pearls whereas in fact it is made of imitation pearls of no value. Anshul knows that Sonia is mistaken and takes no steps ... the contract C. Sonia can cancel the contract alleging undue influence D. Sonia can claim damages
Last Answer : B. Sonia cannot cancel the contract
Description : The threat to commit suicide amounts to (a) Coercion (b) Undue influence (c) Misrepresentation (d) Fraud
Last Answer : (a) Coercion
Description : In Indian Contract Act, the term consensus ad idem means A. Parties under a mistake B. Parties under the free consent C. Parties agreeing upon the same thing in same sense D. None of these
Last Answer : C. Parties agreeing upon the same thing in same sense
Description : Undue influence can be presumed between A. Guardian and Ward B. Mother and Daughter C. Doctor and Patient D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Undue influence can be exercised only between the parties who are: A. Related to each other B. Not related to each other C. Friendly to each other
Last Answer : A. Related to each other
Description : According section 5(2) subject to provision of any law for the time being in force a contract of sale may be A. Made in writing B. By words of mouth C. Partly in writing or partly in words of mouth D. All above ways
Last Answer : A. Made in writing
Description : As per the doctrine of caveat emptor incorporated in Section 16, there is no implied conditions or warranty in a contract of sale as to the A. Merchantability. B. Wholesomeness. C. Quality or fitness for buyer's purpose. D. None of these.
Last Answer : C. Quality or fitness for buyer's purpose.
Description : The functions of State Board are given under: A. Section 16 B. Section 17 C. Section 21 D. Section 45
Last Answer : B. Section 17
Description : The principle professional competence and due care imposes which of the following obligations on professional accountants? a. To maintain professional knowledge and skill at the level required to ensure that a ... , conflict of interest or undue influence of others. d. To be fair and truthful.
Last Answer : To maintain professional knowledge and skill at the level required to ensure that a client or employer receives competent professional service.
Description : Which of the following best describes due care? a. Reasonable infallibility b. Tact in avoiding legal liability c. Requisite skill and diligence d. Freedom from undue influence
Last Answer : Requisite skill and diligence
Description : The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of central Government is Wildlife (Protection) Act is under: A. Section 38 B. Section 39 C. Section 18 D. Section 27
Last Answer : A. Section 38
Description : The Air Act have A. 56 Section B. 54 Section C. 58 Section D. 62 Section
Last Answer : B. 54 Section
Description : As per section 2(1)(j) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, 'manufacturer' means a person who (i) makes or manufactures any goods or part thereof (ii) does not make or manufacture any goods but assembles parts thereof made or manufactured by ... B. (i) & (iii) C. (ii) & (ii) D. (i), (ii) & (iii)
Last Answer : D. (i), (ii) & (iii)
Description : In case of death of a consumer who can prefer compliant under Section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986 A. his legal heir or representative B. State Government C. consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956 D. No one can prefer complaint
Last Answer : A. his legal heir or representative
Description : As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, "complainant" means A. a consumer B. any consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956 C. the Central Government or any State Government, D. All the above
Description : For the purpose of attracting the provisions of section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a cheque has to be presented to the bank A. Within a period of six months B. Within a period of six ... . Within a period of 15 days from the date on which it is drawn D. None of the above.
Last Answer : B. Within a period of six months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier
Description : Can the holder of a negotiable instrument indorsed in blank convert the indorsement into an indorsement in full? A. No, such a conversion is not possible under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (Section ... the indorsement in blank to an indorsement in full (Section 49) D. None of the above.
Last Answer : C. Yes, the holder can by signing his own name and by writing above the indorser's signature a direction to pay to any other person as indorsee, convert the indorsement in blank to an indorsement in full (Section 49)
Description : 'At sight' under section 21 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, means A. On presentation B. On demand C. On coming into vision D. None of the above.
Last Answer : A. On presentation
Description : Under section 16 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 'indorsement in blank' of an instrument means A. Where the indorser does not write anything on the instrument B. Where the indorser signs his name only on ... the indorser writes the name of the person who is directed to pay D. None of the above.
Last Answer : A. Where the indorser does not write anything on the instrument
Description : The term 'negotiation' in section 14 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 refers to A. The transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the ... the instrument C. The bargaining between the parties to a negotiable instrument D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. The transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the person the holder thereof
Description : The term condition is defined in which of the following Section of the Sale of Goods Act. 1930? A. Section 12 (1) B. Section 12 (2) C. Section 12 (3) D. Section 12 (4)
Last Answer : B. Section 12 (2)
Description : Section 4, of the Sale of Goods Act 1930, deals with A. Sale B. Agreement to sell C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of above
Last Answer : C. Both (a) and (b)
Description : As per section 2(12), of the Sale of Goods Act, quality of goods includes A. State of goods B. Conditions of goods C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of above
Description : As per section 2(8), of the Sales of Goods Act, insolvent means a person A. Who has ceased to pay his debts in the ordinary course of business B. Or cannot pay his debts as they become due C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of above
Description : Section 2, sub-section______, of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 defines "Goods" A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. None of above
Last Answer : D. None of above
Description : When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing or, does or abstain from doing or promises to do or to abstain from doing something, such ... called A. Reciprocal promise B. Consideration for the promise C. Counter offer D. Acceptance.
Last Answer : B. Consideration for the promise
Description : Banks are required to maintain SLR under_____ A. Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act B. Section 35 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 C. Section 24 of RBI Act D. Section 40 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 E. None of the Above
Last Answer : A. Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act Explanation: SLR is governed by the provisions of Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act. There is no minimum stipulation on SLR (earlier there used to ... with an amendment to the Banking Regulation Act in 2007). However, SLR can not exceed 40%.
Description : The term” Promise” has been defined in .............. of the Indian Contract Act. (a) Section 2(a) (b) Section 2(b) (c) Section 2(c) (d) Section 2(d)
Last Answer : (b) Section 2(b)
Description : The term” Proposal or offer” has been defined in - of the Indian contract Act. (a) Section 2(a) (b) Section 2(b) (c) Section 2(c) (d) Section 2(d)
Last Answer : (a) Section 2(a)
Description : An agreement not enforceable by Law is said to be void under section ................ of the Indian Contract Act. (a) Section 2(a) (b) Section 2(b) (c) Section 2(f) (d) Section 2(g)
Last Answer : (d) Section 2(g)
Description : Contract is defined as an agreement enforceable by Law, vide section ............ of the Indian Contract Act. (a) Section 2(e) (b) Section 2(f) (c) Section 2(h) (d) Section 2(i)
Last Answer : (c) Section 2(h)
Description : As per section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act, “Every Promise and every set of promise forming the consideration for each other is a/an (a) Contract (b) Agreement (c) Offer (d) Acceptance
Last Answer : (b) Agreement
Description : Agreement is defined by the section ............... of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. (a) Section 2(c) (b) Section 2(e) (c) Section 2(g) (d) Section 2(i)
Last Answer : (b) Section 2(e)
Description : Contract is defined as an agreement enforceable by law, vide Section … of the Indian Contract Act. (a) Section 2(e) (b) Section 2(f) (c) Section 2(h) (d) Section 2(i)
Description : The consumers have an implied_____________ with the corporations A. Quasi Contract B. Social Contract C. Legal Contract D. None of the above
Last Answer : B. Social Contract
Description : The most influential theory of corporate responsibility of the past century is: A. The moral minimum model. B. The classical model. C. The social contract theory. D. The stakeholder theory.
Last Answer : B. The classical model.
Description : A firm that bases its price on how it thinks the competitors will price, rather than on its own costs or demand, to win a contract is most likely using A. Going-rate pricing B. Cost-plus pricing C. Perceived-value pricing D. Sealed-bid pricing
Last Answer : C. Perceived-value pricing
Description : Carrying the line of only one manufacturer is known as A. Exclusive assortment B. Open bid C. Negotiated contract D. Deep assortment
Last Answer : A. Exclusive assortment
Description : Pre incorporation contract is also known as _________ A. Provisional B. Preliminary C. Illegal D. Legal
Last Answer : A. Provisional
Description : A stipulation in contract of sale with reference to goods which are the subject there of may be A. A condition B. A warranty C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of above
Description : Where the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time or subject to some condition, then such contract is called: A. An agreement to sell B. A contract to Sale C. Future Contract D. Conditional contract
Last Answer : A. An agreement to sell
Description : A warranty is a stipulation which is A. Essential to the main purpose of contract of sale. B. Essential for buyer's specific purpose. C. Collateral to the main purpose of contract of sale. D. None of these
Last Answer : C. Collateral to the main purpose of contract of sale.
Description : A stipulation which is essential to the main purpose of the contract and if proved false, gives the buyer a right to terminate the contract, is legally known as A. Condition B. Warranty C. Guarantee D. None of these
Last Answer : A. Condition
Description : The goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made are called A. Ordinary goods B. Specified goods C. Scheduled goods D. None of above
Last Answer : B. Specified goods
Description : Future goods mean goods to be manufactured or produced or acquired by the seller A. In future prescribed time B. After making of contract C. Before making of contract D. None of above
Last Answer : B. After making of contract
Description : A minor was facing a criminal prosecution for smuggling drugs. He borrowed Rs. 5000 to hire an advocate to defend him in the court of law. What is the remedy available to the creditor if the ... the age of majority D. The creditor can recover his amount from the parent or guardian of the minor
Last Answer : A. The creditor cannot recover the amount from the minor since a contract with a minor is void ab initio
Description : Voidable contract is one A. Which is lawful. B. Which is invalid. C. Which is valid as long as it is not avoided by the party entitled to do so. D. Which is unlawful.
Last Answer : C. Which is valid as long as it is not avoided by the party entitled to do so.