Description : Criticism of Government defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules a) Sec 8 b) Sec 7 c) Sec 9 d) Sec 10
Last Answer : c) Sec 9
Description : Connection with press or other media defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules a) Sec 8 b) Sec 7 c) Sec 9 d) Sec 10
Last Answer : a) Sec 8
Description : Demonstration and Strikes defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules a) Sec 7 b) Sec 4 c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6
Last Answer : a) Sec 7
Description : Gift defined defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules a) Sec 11 b) Sec 12 c) Sec 10 d) Sec 13
Last Answer : d) Sec 13
Description : Joining of Associations by Government servants defined in _____of CCS Conducts rules a) Sec 3 b) Sec 4 c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6
Last Answer : d) Sec 6
Description : Elections defined in _____of CCS Conduct rules a) Sec 3 b) Sec 4 c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6
Last Answer : c) Sec 5
Description : Rule 11 of CCS Conduct rules explained a) Evidence before committee b) Unauthorized communication of information c) Election d) Gift
Last Answer : b) Unauthorized communication of information
Description : Employment of near relatives of Government servants in companies or firms defined in ____of CCS Conduct rules. a) Sec 3 b) Sec 4 c) Sec 5 d) Sec 6
Last Answer : b) Sec 4
Description : Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women defined in __of CCS Conduct rules a) Sec 3-A b) Sec 3-B c) Sec 3-C d) Sec 3-D
Last Answer : c) Sec 3-C
Description : Observance of Government’s policies defined in ____of CCS Conduct rules a) Sec 3-A b) Sec 3-B c) Sec 3-C d) Sec 3-D
Last Answer : b) Sec 3-B
Description : Definitions defined in ______of CCS Conduct rules a) Sec 2. b) Sec 3. c) Sec 1 d) Sec 4
Last Answer : a) Sec 2.
Description : Short title, commencement and application defined in _____ of CCS conduct rules. a) Sec 2. b) Sec 3. c) Sec 1 d) Sec 4
Last Answer : c) Sec 1
Description : Offence defined in sec _____of IPC (a) Section 39 (b) Section 38 (c) Section 37 (d) Section 40.
Last Answer : (d) Section 40.
Description : Rule 10 of CCS Conduct rules not apply to:- a) Evidence given at an enquiry before an quthority appinted by the Govt, Parliament or a State Legislature b) Evidence given in any ... Evidence given at any departmental enquiry ordered by authorities subordinate to the government d) All the above
Last Answer : d) All the above
Description : In sec 3-A of CCS Conduct rules explained a) Observance o Government’s policies b) Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women c) Promptness and Courtesy d) All the above
Last Answer : c) Promptness and Courtesy
Description : CCS conduct Rules not apply to a) A member of All India Service b) A holder of any post in respect of which the president has, by a general or special order c) A Railway servant as defined in Section 3 of the Indian Railways act 1890 d) All the above
Description : Proof of documents by primary evidence defined in sec ____of Evidence Act a) 62 b) 63 c) 64 d) 65
Last Answer : c) 64
Description : Government means in CCS Conduct Rules a) State government b) Central government c) Both A & B d) None of these
Last Answer : b) Central government
Description : CCS Conduct Rules apply to a) Every person appointed to a civil service b) Every civilian in defense service c) Both A & B d) None of these
Last Answer : c) Both A & B
Description : CCS Conduct Rules come into force on a) 1965 b) 1964 c) 1956 d) None of these
Last Answer : d) None of these
Description : To what of following rules of relevancy have been discussed under section 8 of Indian evidence act a) Motive b) Preparation c) Previous or subsequent conduct d) All the above
Description : Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant (a) Under section 6 of Evidence Act (b) Under section 7 of Evidence Act (c) Under section 8 of Evidence Act (d) Under section 9 of Evidence Act.
Last Answer : (b) Under section 7 of Evidence Act
Description : Cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given a) When the original is shown or appear to be in the possession or power of the person against whom the document is sought to be ... d) When the original is public document within the meaning of sec 74 e) All the above
Last Answer : e) All the above
Description : Which of the following has not been defined under Sec. 2 of the RTI Act a) Central Asst public information officer. b) Central information officer c) Public authority d) Judge
Last Answer : d) Judge
Description : Punishment of offences committed within India every person shall be liable to punishment under this code and not otherwise for every act or omission defined in __ sec of IPC a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4
Last Answer : c) 2
Description : Digital signature defined in_____of evidence act a) Section 65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B c) Section 73A d) Section 73
Last Answer : c) Section 73A
Description : Proof of electronic signature defined in_____of evidence act a) Section 65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B c) Section 65 d) Section 67A
Last Answer : d) Section 67A
Description : Proof of signature and handwriting defined in ____of evidence act. a) Section 65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B c) Section 65 d) Section 67
Last Answer : d) Section 67
Description : Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record and admissibility of electronic records defined in ______ of evidence act a) Section 65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B c) Section 65 d) None of these
Last Answer : a) Section 65 A,& 65 B
Description : In relation to expression defined in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not correct a) Facts include not only physical fact but also psychological facts b) Court ... a document d) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disapproved
Last Answer : b) Court includes arbitrators
Description : The law of evidence consists of (a) Ordinary rules of reasoning (b) Legal rules of evidence (c) Rules of logic (d) All the above.
Last Answer : (b) Legal rules of evidence
Last Answer : (c) Physical as well as psychological facts
Description : Under which of the following provisions of Evidence act word forming part of same transaction occurs? a) Section 5 b) Section 6 c) Section 7 d) Section 8
Last Answer : b) Section 6
Description : Mark the correct option a) When an official is transferred permanently to the jurisdiction of another office, the officer in charge of the office in which his bond is kept will forward the bond to ... or temporary officials will be entered in the prescribed register Form Sec. 19. d) All the above
Description : A cannon of weight 10 tonnes fires a shell of 50 kg with a muzzle velocity of 900 m/sec at an angle of 30?. The time taken for the shell to emerge from the barrel is 0.004 sec. The velocity of the cannon would be a.3.9 m/sec b.7.8 m/sec c.8.95 m/sec d.1.95 m/sec e.5.85 m/sec
Last Answer : a. 3.9 m/sec
Description : ‘Judgment’ is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908. (a) 2(6) (b) 2(4) (c) 2(5) (d) 2(9)
Last Answer : (d) 2(9)
Description : 10.Which of the following committee is related to Corporatisation of Stock Exchanges? (a) Bimal Jalan Committee (b) V Achuthan Committee (c) P M Nair Committee (d) None of these Ans-a
Last Answer : (a) Bimal Jalan Committee
Description : In which of the following cases no notice is required to be given to adverse pary before producing secondary documentary evidence? a) When original is destroyed b) When original is immovable c) When original is electronic record d) When original is in possession of adverse party
Last Answer : d) When original is in possession of adverse party
Description : Evidence includes- a) All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of face under inquiry. b) All documents including electronic record produced for the inspection of the court c) Both the A & B d) None of these
Last Answer : c) Both the A & B
Description : Mark the correct option a) All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry such statements are called oral evidence b) ... documentary evidence c) Both the A and B are correct d) Neither A nor B are correct.
Last Answer : c) Both the A and B are correct
Description : Indian Evidence Act applies to (a) Proceedings before tribunals (b) Proceedings before the arbitrator (c) Judicial proceedings in courts (d) All the above.
Last Answer : (c) Judicial proceedings in courts
Description : General explanation defined in sec_____of IPC a) 4 b) 5 c) 7 d) 6
Last Answer : d) 6
Description : Government Pleader is defined in………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908. (a) 2(7) (b) 2(4) (c) 2(5) (d) 2(2)
Last Answer : (a) 2(7)
Description : Under section 8 of Evidence Act- a) Preparation is relevant b) conduct is relevant c) Motive is relevant d) All the above
Description : Which of the following is not relevant under section 8 of Indian Evidence act? a) Intention b) Occasion c) Preparation d) Previous conduc
Last Answer : b) Occasion
Description : . The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______. A) correction; detection B) detection; correction C) creation; correction D) creation;detection
Last Answer : correction; detection
Description : The _____of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. A) frequency B) period C) bandwidth D) amplitude
Last Answer : frequency
Description : ‘Judge’ is defined as the presiding officer of a civil Court in ………………..of Code of civil Procedure 1908. (a) 2(8) (b) 2(4) (c) 2(5) (d) 2(2)
Description : A is accused of murder of B by beating him whatever is said or done by A or B or by standers at beating or so shortly before or after it as to form part of transaction is a relevant fact under section- a) Section 6 b) Section 9 c) Section 12 d) Section 8
Last Answer : a) Section 6
Description : Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor's communications about fraud? a. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee ... . The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under any circumstances
Last Answer : Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee regardless of the amounts involved