Which of the following statements concerning a CPA's disclosure of confidential client information is ordinarily correct? a. Disclosure should not be made even if such disclosure will protect the CPA's professional interests in legal proceedings. b. Disclosure should be made only if there is a legal, or professional duty to make the disclosure. c. Disclosure may be made to any party on consent of the client. d. Disclosure may be made to any government agency without subpoena.

Which of the following statements
concerning a CPA's disclosure of confidential
client information is ordinarily correct?
a. Disclosure should not be made even if
such disclosure will protect the CPA's
professional interests in legal
proceedings.
b. Disclosure should be made only if there is
a legal, or professional duty to make the
disclosure.
c. Disclosure may be made to any
party on consent of the client.
d. Disclosure may be made to any
government agency without subpoena.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

Disclosure may be made to any
party on consent of the client.
by

Related questions

Without the consent of the client, a CPA should not disclose confidential information contained in working papers to a: a. Voluntary quality control review board. b. CPA firm that has purchased the CPA’s accounting practice. c. National court that has issued a valid subpoena. d. Disciplinary body created under statute.

Description : Without the consent of the client, a CPA should not disclose confidential information contained in working papers to a: a. Voluntary quality control review board. b. CPA firm that has purchased the ... . c. National court that has issued a valid subpoena. d. Disciplinary body created under statute.

Last Answer : CPA firm that has purchased the CPA’s accounting practice.

A CPA in public practice shall not disclose any confidential client information without the specific consent of the client. The confidentiality rule is violated if CPA disclosed information without client's consent as a result of a a. Subpoena or summons. b. Peer review. c. Request by client's largest stockholder. d. Complaint filed with the trial board of the Board of Accountancy

Description : A CPA in public practice shall not disclose any confidential client information without the specific consent of the client. The confidentiality rule is violated if CPA disclosed information without client' ... s largest stockholder. d. Complaint filed with the trial board of the Board of Accountancy

Last Answer : Request by client's largest stockholder.

In which of the following circumstances would a CPA be bound by ethics to refrain from disclosing any confidential information obtained during the course of a professional engagement? a. The CPA is issue a summons enforceable by a court order which orders the CPA to present confidential information. b. A major stockholder of a client company seeks accounting information from the CPA after management declined to disclose the requested information. c. Confidential client information is made available as part of a quality review of the CPA's practice by a peer review team authorized by the PICPA. d. An inquiry by a disciplinary body of PICPA requests confidential client information

Description : In which of the following circumstances would a CPA be bound by ethics to refrain from disclosing any confidential information obtained during the course of a professional engagement? a. The CPA is ... the PICPA. d. An inquiry by a disciplinary body of PICPA requests confidential client information

Last Answer : A major stockholder of a client company seeks accounting information from the CPA after management declined to disclose the requested information

A professional accountant has a professional duty or right disclose confidential information in each of the following, except: a. To comply with technical standards and ethics requirements. b. To disclose to the Bureau of Internal Revenue any fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment of income tax. c. To comply with the quality review of a member body or professional body d. To respond to an inquiry or investigation by a member body or regulatory body

Description : A professional accountant has a professional duty or right disclose confidential information in each of the following, except: a. To comply with technical standards and ethics requirements. b. To disclose to ... body d. To respond to an inquiry or investigation by a member body or regulatory body

Last Answer : To disclose to the Bureau of Internal Revenue any fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment of income tax

A professional accountant has a professional duty or right to disclose confidential information in each of the following, except: a. To disclose to BIR fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment of income tax. b. To comply with technical standards and ethics requirements. c. To comply with the quality review of amember body or professional bodyd. To respond to an inquiry or investigationby a member body or regulatory body

Description : A professional accountant has a professional duty or right to disclose confidential information in each of the following, except: a. To disclose to BIR fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment ... body d. To respond to an inquiry or investigation by a member body or regulatory body

Last Answer : To disclose to BIR fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment of income tax

A professional accountant has a professional duty or right to disclose confidential information in each of the following, except: a. To comply with technical standards and ethics requirements. b. To disclose to BIR fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment of income tax. c. To comply with the quality review of a member body or professional body d. To respond to an inquiry or investigation by a member body or regulatory body

Description : A professional accountant has a professional duty or right to disclose confidential information in each of the following, except: a. To comply with technical standards and ethics requirements. b. To disclose ... body d. To respond to an inquiry or investigation by a member body or regulatory body

Last Answer : To disclose to BIR fraudulent scheme committed by the client on payment of income tax.

Which of the following statements concerning consulting services is incorrect? a. The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of itself, impair the auditor's independence. b. Consulting services differ fundamentally from the CPA's function of attesting to the assertions of other parties. c. Consulting services ordinarily involve external reporting. d. Most CPAs, including those who provide audit and tax services, also provide consulting services to their clients

Description : Which of the following statements concerning consulting services is incorrect? a. The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of itself, impair the auditor's ... including those who provide audit and tax services, also provide consulting services to their clients

Last Answer : Consulting services ordinarily involve external reporting

The confidential relationship will be violated if, without client's permission, the CPA provides working papers about client to a. A court of law which subpoenas them. b. Another CPA firm as part of a peer review. c. Another CPA firm which has just purchased the CPA's entire practice. d. An investigative or disciplinary body which is conducting a review of the CPA's practice.

Description : The confidential relationship will be violated if, without client's permission, the CPA provides working papers about client to a. A court of law which subpoenas them. b. Another CPA firm as part ... . d. An investigative or disciplinary body which is conducting a review of the CPA's practice.

Last Answer : Another CPA firm which has just purchased the CPA's entire practice.

The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor when considering the a. Decision whether to use positive or negative confirmations of accounts receivable. b. Adequacy of disclosure of a client's illegal act. c. Discovery of weaknesses in a client's internal control structure. d. Effects of a direct financial interest in the client upon the CPA's independence.

Description : The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor when considering the a. Decision whether to use positive or negative confirmations of accounts receivable. b. Adequacy of disclosure of a ... . d. Effects of a direct financial interest in the client upon the CPA's independence.

Last Answer : Effects of a direct financial interest in the client upon the CPA's independence.

Contingent fees charged by CPAs engaged in tax practice are permitted under the rules of professional conduct because: a. This practice establishes fees which are commensurate with the value of the services. b. Attorneys in tax practice customarily set contingent fees. c. Determination by taxing authorities are a matter of judicial proceedings which do not involve third parties. d. The consequences are based upon findings of judicial proceedings or the findings of tax authorities

Description : Contingent fees charged by CPAs engaged in tax practice are permitted under the rules of professional conduct because: a. This practice establishes fees which are commensurate with the value of ... . The consequences are based upon findings of judicial proceedings or the findings of tax authorities

Last Answer : The consequences are based upon findings of judicial proceedings or the findings of tax authorities

The CPA shall not concurrently engage in any business or occupation which impairs his objectivity in rendering professional services or which is inconsistent with his practice or employment. This provision of the code of ethics is applicable to: a. Only to CPAs engaged in public accountancy. b. CPAs engaged in public accountancy or employed in a private enterprise. c. CPAs engaged in public accountancy or employed in a private enterprise or government agency. d. All CPAs engaged in public accountancy, or employed in a private enterprise, a government agency or an educational institution

Description : The CPA shall not concurrently engage in any business or occupation which impairs his objectivity in rendering professional services or which is inconsistent with his practice or employment. This ... accountancy, or employed in a private enterprise, a government agency or an educational institution

Last Answer : All CPAs engaged in public accountancy, or employed in a private enterprise, a government agency or an educational institution

When an auditor believes that an understanding with the client has not been established, he or she should ordinarily a. Perform the audit with increased professional skepticism. b. Decline to accept or perform the audit. c. Review the client’s financial reports. d. Obtain information about the client’s business and the industry where it operates

Description : When an auditor believes that an understanding with the client has not been established, he or she should ordinarily a. Perform the audit with increased professional skepticism. b. Decline to accept ... reports. d. Obtain information about the client's business and the industry where it operates

Last Answer : Decline to accept or perform the audit.

Working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the working papers from, being subpoenaed. b. Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit. c. Provide the basis for excluding admission of the working papers as evidence because of the privileged communication rule. d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged.

Description : Working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the ... d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged.

Last Answer : Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit.

The working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the working papers from being subpoenaed. b. Provide the basis for excluding admission of the working papers as evidence because of the privileged communication rulec. Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit. d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged.

Description : The working papers prepared by a CPA in connection with an audit engagement are owned by the CPA, subject to certain limitations. The rationale for this rule is to a. Protect the ... d. Establish a continuity of relationship with the client whereby indiscriminate replacement of CPAs is discouraged

Last Answer : Provide the CPA with evidence and documentation which may be helpful in the event of a lawsuit

Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent court. c. Can only be released for peer reviews after receiving permission from the client. d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statements

Description : Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not ... d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statements

Last Answer : Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent court.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Professional standards prohibit CPAs from performing non-assurance engagements. b. Absolute assurance is attainable owing to the fact that much of the evidence available to the CPA is persuasive rather than conclusive. c. The CPA’s conclusion provides a level of assurance about the subject matter. d. The responsible party expresses a conclusion that provides a level of assurance as to whether the subject matter conforms, in all material respects, with the identified suitable criteria

Description : Which of the following statements is true? a. Professional standards prohibit CPAs from performing non-assurance engagements. b. Absolute assurance is attainable owing to the fact that much of ... to whether the subject matter conforms, in all material respects, with the identified suitable criteria

Last Answer : The CPA’s conclusion provides a level of assurance about the subject matter.

After discovering that a related-party transaction exists, the auditor should be aware that the a. Transaction is assumed to be outside the ordinary course of business. b. Substance of the transaction could be significantly different from its form. c. Adequacy of disclosure of the transaction is secondary to its legal form. d. Financial statements should recognize the legal form of the transaction rather

Description : After discovering that a related-party transaction exists, the auditor should be aware that the a. Transaction is assumed to be outside the ordinary course of business. b. Substance of the ... to its legal form. d. Financial statements should recognize the legal form of the transaction rather

Last Answer : Substance of the transaction could be significantly different from its form.

Intimidation threat a. Is not a threat to independence. b. Occurs when a member of the assurance team may be deterred from acting objectively and exercising professional skepticism by threats, actual or perceived, from the directors, officers or employees of an assurance clienc. Occurs when, by virtue of a close relationship with an assurance client, its directors, officers or employees, a firm or a member of the assurance team becomes too sympathetic to the client's interests. d. Occurs when a firm, or a member of the assurance team, promotes, or may be perceived to promote, an assurance client's position or opinion to the point that objectivity may, or may be perceived to be, compromised.t

Description : Intimidation threat a. Is not a threat to independence. b. Occurs when a member of the assurance team may be deterred from acting objectively and exercising professional skepticism by threats, actual or ... or opinion to the point that objectivity may, or may be perceived to be, compromised.

Last Answer : Occurs when a member of the assurance team may be deterred from acting objectively and exercising professional skepticism by threats, actual or perceived, from the directors, officers or employees of an assurance client.

Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor's communications about fraud? a. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee regardless of the amounts involved. b. All fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should be reported directly by the auditor to the SEC c. Fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should ordinarily be disclosed by the auditor through the use of an emphasis of a matter paragraph added to the audit report. d. The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under any circumstances

Description : Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor's communications about fraud? a. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee ... . The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under any circumstances

Last Answer : Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee regardless of the amounts involved

The following statements relate to the three parties involved in an assurance engagement. Which is correct? a. The responsible party and the intended users should always be from different entities. b. A practitioner should not accept an assurance engagement when the subject matter of the engagement requires specialized skills and knowledge beyond those ordinarily possessed by the practitioner. c. A responsible party is the person who is responsible for the subject matter or the subject matter information. d. In all assurance engagements, the responsible party is the engaging party, i.e., the party that engages the practitioner

Description : The following statements relate to the three parties involved in an assurance engagement. Which is correct? a. The responsible party and the intended users should always be from different entities. b. A ... , the responsible party is the engaging party, i.e., the party that engages the practitioner

Last Answer : A responsible party is the person who is responsible for the subject matter or the subject matter information

Which of the following statements concerning the intended user of a professional accountant's report is incorrect? a. The responsible party and the intended user may both be within the same organization. b. The intended user should never be established by agreement between the practitioner and the responsible party or those engaging or employing the practitioner. c. In some circumstances, the intended user may be established by law. d. The responsible party may also be one of the intended users

Description : Which of the following statements concerning the intended user of a professional accountant's report is incorrect? a. The responsible party and the intended user may both be within the same organization. b. ... may be established by law. d. The responsible party may also be one of the intended users

Last Answer : The intended user should never be established by agreement between the practitioner and the responsible party or those engaging or employing the practitioner

Which of the following statements concerning the intended user of a professional accountant's report is incorrect? a. The responsible party and the intended user may both be within the same organization. b. The intended user should never be established by agreement between the practitioner and the responsible party or those engaging or employing the practitioner. c. In some circumstances, the intended user may be established by law. d. The responsible party may also be one of the intended users.

Description : Which of the following statements concerning the intended user of a professional accountant's report is incorrect? a. The responsible party and the intended user may both be within the same organization. b. ... be established by law. d. The responsible party may also be one of the intended users.

Last Answer : The intended user should never be established by agreement between the practitioner and the responsible party or those engaging or employing the practitioner

The confidential relationship applies to a. All services provided by CPAs. b. Only audit and attestation services. c. Audit and tax services, but no MAS services. d. Audit and MAS services, but not tax services

Description : The confidential relationship applies to a. All services provided by CPAs. b. Only audit and attestation services. c. Audit and tax services, but no MAS services. d. Audit and MAS services, but not tax services

Last Answer : All services provided by CPAs

The confidential relationship applies to a. All services provided by CPAs.b. Only audit and attestation services. c. Audit and tax services, but no MAS services. d. Audit and MAS services, but not tax services

Description : The confidential relationship applies to a. All services provided by CPAs. b. Only audit and attestation services. c. Audit and tax services, but no MAS services. d. Audit and MAS services, but not tax services

Last Answer : All services provided by CPAs.

Which of the following statements about fraud or error is incorrect? a. The responsibility for the prevention and detection of fraud and error rests with management. b. The auditor should plan and perform the audit with an attitude of professional skepticism, recognizing that conditions or events may be found that fraud or error may exist. c. The likelihood of detecting fraud is ordinarily higher than that of detecting error. d. The auditor is not and can not be held responsible for the prevention of fraud and error

Description : Which of the following statements about fraud or error is incorrect? a. The responsibility for the prevention and detection of fraud and error rests with management. b. The auditor should plan and perform ... . The auditor is not and can not be held responsible for the prevention of fraud and error

Last Answer : The likelihood of detecting fraud is ordinarily higher than that of detecting error.

Engagement letters are widely used in practice for professional engagements of all types. The primary purpose of the engagement letter is toa. Remind management of its primaryresponsibility over the financialstatements.b. Satisfy the requirements of the Code ofProfessional Conduct for CPAs.c. Provide a starting point for the auditor'spreparation of the preliminary auditprogram.d. Provide a written record of theagreement with the client as to theservices to be provided.

Description : Engagement letters are widely used in practice for professional engagements of all types. The primary purpose of the engagement letter is to a. Remind management of its primary responsibility over the financial ... a written record of the agreement with the client as to the services to be provided.

Last Answer : Provide a written record of the agreement with the client as to the services to be provided.

Which of the following mostly describes the function of AASC? a. To monitor full compliance by auditors to PSAs. b. To assist the Board of Accountancy in conducting administrative proceedings on erring CPAs in audit practice. c. To promulgate auditing standards, practices and procedures that shall be generally accepted by the accounting profession in the Philippines. d. To undertake continuing research on both auditing and financial accounting in order to make them responsive to the needs of the public

Description : Which of the following mostly describes the function of AASC? a. To monitor full compliance by auditors to PSAs. b. To assist the Board of Accountancy in conducting administrative proceedings on ... both auditing and financial accounting in order to make them responsive to the needs of the public

Last Answer : To promulgate auditing standards, practices and procedures that shall be generally accepted by the accounting profession in the Philippines.

Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent court. c. Can only be released for peer reviews after receiving permission from the client. d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statement

Description : Which of the following best describes the passing of confidential information from a client to its auditor? The information: a. Should in no circumstances be conveyed to third parties. b. Is not ... d. Should be conveyed to the public if it affects the "correctness" of the financial statement

Last Answer : Is not legally protected and can be subpoenaed by a competent cour

Which of the following most completely describes how independence has been defined by the CPA profession? a. Performing an audit from the viewpoint of the public. b. Avoiding the appearance of significant interests in the affairs of an audit client. c. Possessing the ability to act with integrity and objectivity. d. Possessing the ability to act professionally and accordance with a professional code of ethics.

Description : Which of the following most completely describes how independence has been defined by the CPA profession? a. Performing an audit from the viewpoint of the public. b. Avoiding the appearance of ... . d. Possessing the ability to act professionally and accordance with a professional code of ethics.

Last Answer : Possessing the ability to act with integrity and objectivity.

Which of the following is a violation Confidentiality rule of the Code of Ethics? a. The CPA, in response to a court subpoena, submits auditor-prepared workpapers as evidence of possible illegal acts perpetrated by the client. b. The CPA discloses to the board of directors a scheme concocted by top management to intentionally inflate earningsc. The CPA warns Client B as to theinadvisability of acquiring Client A.The CPA bases this warning onknowledge of Client A's financialcondition and a belief that themanagement of Client A lacksintegrity. This knowledge wasobtained by the CPA as a result ofauditing Client A during the pastseveral year is.d. The CPA, when questioned in court,admits to knowledge of certain illegalacts perpetrated by the client.

Description : Which of the following is a violation Confidentiality rule of the Code of Ethics? a. The CPA, in response to a court subpoena, submits auditor-prepared workpapers as evidence of possible illegal ... CPA, when questioned in court, admits to knowledge of certain illegal acts perpetrated by the client.

Last Answer : The CPA warns Client B as to the inadvisability of acquiring Client A. The CPA bases this warning on knowledge of Client A's financial condition and a belief that the management of Client A lacks integrity ... was obtained by the CPA as a result of auditing Client A during the past several year is.

CPAs should not be liable to any party if they perform their services with: a. Ordinary negligence. b. Regulatory providence. c. Due professional care. d. Good faith

Description : CPAs should not be liable to any party if they perform their services with: a. Ordinary negligence. b. Regulatory providence. c. Due professional care. d. Good faith

Last Answer : Due professional care

Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any direct financial interest in a client. b. CPAs lose their independence if they have a material direct financial interest in a client. c. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any indirect financial interest in a client. d. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire a material indirect financial interest in a client.

Description : Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any direct financial interest in a client. b. CPAs lose their independence if they have a material ... d. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire a material indirect financial interest in a client.

Last Answer : CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any indirect financial interest in a client.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any direct financial interest in a client. b. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any indirect financial interest in a client. c. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire a material indirect financial interest in a client. d. CPAs lose their independence if they have a material direct financial interest in a client

Description : Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any direct financial interest in a client. b. CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any indirect ... . d. CPAs lose their independence if they have a material direct financial interest in a client

Last Answer : CPAs lose their independence if they acquire any indirect financial interest in a client

Which of the following types of audits is performed most frequently by CPAs on a fee basis and for more than one client? a. Government audits b. Compliance audits c. Internal audits d. Financial statement audits

Description : Which of the following types of audits is performed most frequently by CPAs on a fee basis and for more than one client? a. Government audits b. Compliance audits c. Internal audits d. Financial statement audits

Last Answer : Financial statement audits

The QRC shall have the following functions: a. Conduct quality control review on applicants for registration to practice public accountancy and render a report on such quality review. b. Mete out sentences of imprisonment to CPAs who fail to present a valid system of quality control. c. Revoke the certificate of registration and professional ID of an individual CPA, firm, or partnership of CPAs who have not observed quality control measures and who has not complied with the standards of quality prescribed for the practice of public accountancy. d. All of these

Description : The QRC shall have the following functions: a. Conduct quality control review on applicants for registration to practice public accountancy and render a report on such quality review. b. Mete out ... with the standards of quality prescribed for the practice of public accountancy. d. All of these

Last Answer : Conduct quality control review on applicants for registration to practice public accountancy and render a report on such quality review.

.Which of the following fee arrangements is in violation of the Code of Professional Conduct? a. A fee based on whether the CPA's report on the client's financial statements results in the approval of a bank loan. b. A fee based on the outcome of a bankruptcy proceeding. c. A fee based on the nature of the service rendered and the CPA's particulaexpertise instead of the actual time spent on the engagement. d. A fee based on the fee charged by the prior auditor.r

Description : .Which of the following fee arrangements is in violation of the Code of Professional Conduct? a. A fee based on whether the CPA's report on the client's financial statements results in the approval of a ... actual time spent on the engagement. d. A fee based on the fee charged by the prior auditor.

Last Answer : A fee based on whether the CPA's report on the client's financial statements results in the approval of a bank loan

A professional accountant may be associated with a tax return that a. Contains a false or misleading statement. b. Contains statements or information furnished recklessly or without any real knowledge of whether they are true or false. c. Omits or obscures information required to be submitted and such omission or obscurity would mislead the revenue authorities. d. Uses of estimates if such use is generally acceptable or if it is impractical under the circumstances to obtain exact data

Description : A professional accountant may be associated with a tax return that a. Contains a false or misleading statement. b. Contains statements or information furnished recklessly or without any real ... use is generally acceptable or if it is impractical under the circumstances to obtain exact data

Last Answer : Uses of estimates if such use is generally acceptable or if it is impractical under the circumstances to obtain exact data

An auditor obtains an understanding of the entity and its environment in order to a. Make constructive suggestions concerning improvements to the client's internal control. b. Understand the events and transactions that may have an effect on the client's financial statements. c. Evaluate whether the aggregation of known misstatements causes the financial statements taken as a whole to be materially misstated. d. Develop an attitude of professional skepticism concerning management's financial statement assertion

Description : An auditor obtains an understanding of the entity and its environment in order to a. Make constructive suggestions concerning improvements to the client's internal control. b. ... misstated. d. Develop an attitude of professional skepticism concerning management's financial statement assertion

Last Answer : Understand the events and transactions that may have an effect on the client's financial statements

The auditor would ordinarily expect to find evidence to support management representations and not assume that they are necessarily correct". This is an example of: a. Due diligence. b. Unprofessional behavior. c. An attitude of professional skepticism. d. A rule in the code of Professional Conduct.

Description : The auditor would ordinarily expect to find evidence to support management representations and not assume that they are necessarily correct". This is an example of: a. Due diligence. b. Unprofessional behavior. c. An attitude of professional skepticism. d. A rule in the code of Professional Conduct.

Last Answer : An attitude of professional skepticism.

Transactions with related parties are important to the auditors because they will be disclosed in the financial statements if material. Generally accepted accounting principles would not require disclosure of a. Loans to officers during the year which had been repaid before the balance sheet date. b. The nature of the related-party relationship. c. A description of transactions, including peso amounts. d. The amounts due from and to related parties

Description : Transactions with related parties are important to the auditors because they will be disclosed in the financial statements if material. Generally accepted accounting principles would not require disclosure of ... transactions, including peso amounts. d. The amounts due from and to related parties

Last Answer : Loans to officers during the year which had been repaid before the balance sheet date

A member in public practice may perform for a contingent fee any professional services for a client for whom the member or member's firm performs a. An audit. b. A review. c. A compilation used only by management. d. An audit of prospective financial information

Description : A member in public practice may perform for a contingent fee any professional services for a client for whom the member or member's firm performs a. An audit. b. A review. c. A compilation used only by management. d. An audit of prospective financial information

Last Answer : A compilation used only by management.

A member in public practice may perform for a contingent fee any professional services for a client for whom the member or member's firm performs a. An auditb. A review. c. A compilation used only by management. d. An audit of prospective financial information..

Description : A member in public practice may perform for a contingent fee any professional services for a client for whom the member or member's firm performs a. An audit. b. A review. c. A compilation used only by management. d. An audit of prospective financial information.

Last Answer : A compilation used only by management.

A CPA who is engaged to prepare an income tax return has a duty to prepare it in such a manner that the tax is: a. The legal minimum. b. Computed in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles. c. Supported by the client’s audited financial statements. d. Not subject to change upon audit

Description : A CPA who is engaged to prepare an income tax return has a duty to prepare it in such a manner that the tax is: a. The legal minimum. b. Computed in conformity with generally accepted ... principles. c. Supported by the client's audited financial statements. d. Not subject to change upon audit

Last Answer : The legal minimum

Though PSAs do not provide "hard and fast rules," they provide subjective guidance which allow the auditors to: a. Only apply those standards that are important to the audit. b. Use adequate professional judgment when applying the standards. c. Tailor their audit to procedures requested by management. d. Accurately interpret the Code of Ethics for CPAs

Description : Though PSAs do not provide "hard and fast rules," they provide subjective guidance which allow the auditors to: a. Only apply those standards that are important to the audit. b. Use ... Tailor their audit to procedures requested by management. d. Accurately interpret the Code of Ethics for CPAs

Last Answer : Use adequate professional judgment when applying the standards.

The scope and nature of an auditor's contractual obligation to a client is ordinarily set forth in the a. Opinion paragraph of the auditor’s report. b. Management letter. c. Engagement letter. d. Scope paragraph of the auditor’s repor

Description : The scope and nature of an auditor's contractual obligation to a client is ordinarily set forth in the a. Opinion paragraph of the auditor’s report. b. Management letter. c. Engagement letter. d. Scope paragraph of the auditor’s repor

Last Answer : Engagement letter.