Which of the following is the most significant factor regarding filler in composite for increased strength: A. Particle size 1-3 micron B. Sub micron sized particles C. High concentration of the filler particles

Which of the following is the most significant factor regarding filler in composite for increased  strength:
A. Particle size 1-3 micron
B. Sub micron sized particles
C. High concentration of the filler particles
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. High concentration of the filler particles
by

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Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in terms of (A) Centimetre (B) Screen size (C) Micron (D) Surface area per unit mass

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High copper amalgam lasts longer than low copper amalgam because of:** A. Increased compressive strength B. Increased corrosion resistance C. High creep D. Increased tensile strength E. Decreased setting expansion

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.In regard to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin; the microfill resins tend to have, A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength C. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength D. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength

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Patient has hot and cold sensation and pain on percussion after the filling of class III Cavity with GIC base and composite. What will be possible cause – 1) bacterial microleakage 2) mechanical trauma of cavity cutting 3) Exothermic reaction while setting GIC

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A patient comes to you with medium pain of tooth filled with Composite resin as a result of cold or hot drinks, what will your initial management be, A. Remove the restorative material and start an Endontic treatment B. Remove the restorative material and place a sedative temporary material C. Place a coat of bonding material on the old composite

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Which one of this restorative methods will be LEAST compromised by a core, A. Amalgam B. Composite C. GIC D. Cast gold

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The clinical advantage of porcelain laminate veneers over composite resin veneers is: A. Color stability and resistance to abrasion B. Availability of self-curing or light activated placement (yes but not necessary a clinical advantage) C. Minimal over-contouring of the treated teeth ( not necessarily true depends on the dentist's abilities) D. May be used in edge to edge occlusion or Class III relationships.

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When incrementally placing a large composite resin restoration, what effect does an air-inhibited layer on the surface of the first increment have on the bond between the first and the second increments? A. It has no effect on the bond B. It is desirable and improves the bond C. It is undesirable and should be removed

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On examination of a composite restoration you find a dark attain: A. Replace the composite B. Repair with unfilled resin C. Apply topical fluoride at the margin

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In a posterior vital molar with a core the best material to restore is: A. Amalgam B. Composite resin C. GIC

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Why do you itch enamel for composite restorations: A. To increase surface area B. To decrease surface area C. Does not really change the surface area D. Increase the chemical bonding capability E. Decrease the chemical bonding capability

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When is a gingival groove LEAST required: A. When restoring with GIC for abrasion B. When restoring with GIC for root caries C. When restoring with GIC base and composite lamination D. When restoring with amalgam

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Sensitivity to hot and cold foods soon after cavity preparation and placement of GIC and composite resin in an upper incisor tooth is due to: A. Mechanical trauma due to cavity preparation B. Chemical C. Heat from GIC settings

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A patient has a small incisal fracture of the maxillary incisor. Which is the best material to resist fracture at the acid etched tooth composite interface: A. Micro-filled composite B. Hybrid composite C. GIC D. Silicate

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A seven years-old boy fell off his bicycle 2 weeks ago and broke his maxillary central incisor. The pulp horn is visible as a pin point. The tooth is vital. Your treatment will be: A. Pulpectomy B. Place calcium hydroxide and fill with composite resin C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy

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Last Answer : C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy

Pin Restoration with which material has the best retention: A. Amalgam B. Gold inlay C. Composite D. Glass Ionomer

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.In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A. I B. II C. IV D. III E. V

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Class V composite resin restorations can be polished, A. 24 hours after application B. Immediately after application C. 3 to 4 days D. 3 to 4 weeks E. Not at all

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Which material is not compatible with composite resin: A. Zinc Oxide eugenol (ZOE) B. Ca(OH)2 C. Carboxylate D. Zinc phosphate cement

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Last Answer : A. Zinc Oxide eugenol (ZOE)

A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during setting or in function the light cured material tends to:******** VERY IMP A. Seal the margins better and completely B. Exhibit less wear on time C. Undergo greater colour change D. Shrink more rapidly E. Posses greater fracture toughness

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Last Answer : D. Shrink more rapidly

What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin: A. Less shrinkage B. Less surface erosion C. Less water absorption D. All of the above

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When do you finish composite resin restorations: A. Immediately after curing B. After 24 hours C. A week after placement

Description : When do you finish composite resin restorations: A. Immediately after curing B. After 24 hours C. A week after placement

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When preparing a class III cavity for composite restoration; in which situation should acid itching be used: A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage B. Should not be performed because it might damage the adjacent tooth C. When extra retention is required D. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation

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Last Answer : A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage

The term TUGback is related to ( “When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics)” : A. Tensile strength of the gutta percha B. Consistency of gutta percha C. Size of the cone D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm E. Length of the cone

Description : The term TUGback is related to ( “When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics)” : A. Tensile strength of the gutta percha B. Consistency of gutta percha C. Size of the cone D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm E. Length of the cone

Last Answer : D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Description : Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from ... B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

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Compare Brazing and Soldering on the basis of : (i) Temperature Used. (ii) Filler Material. (iii) Joint Strength (iv) Applications.

Description : Compare Brazing and Soldering on the basis of : (i) Temperature Used. (ii) Filler Material. (iii) Joint Strength (iv) Applications.

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A bed of spherical particles (specific gravity 2.5) of uniform size 1500 μm is 0.5 m in diameter and 0.5 m high. In packed bed state, the porosity may be taken as 0.4. Ergun's equation for the above fluid-particle system (in SI units) is given below : Δ P/L = 375 × 10 3 VOM + 10.94 × 10 6 V2 OM (SI units) If water is to be used as the fluidising medium, the minimum fluidisation velocity, VOM is (A) 12 mm/s (B) 16 mm/s (C) 24 mm/s (D) 28 mm/s

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Last Answer : (B) 16 mm/s

A bed of spherical particles (specific gravity 2.5) of uniform size 1500 μm is 0.5 m in diameter and 0.5 m high. In packed bed state, the porosity may be taken as 0.4. Ergun's equation for the above fluid-particle system (in SI units) is given below: Δ P/L = 375 × 10 3 VOM + 10.94 × 10 6 V2 OM (SI units) If water is to be used as the fluidising medium, in actual operation, the above bed has a height = 1 m. What is the porosity of the fluidised bed? (A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8

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Last Answer : (C) 0.7

The major etiological factor responsible for Class II division 2 malocclusion in Angle’s classification is:** A. Thumb sucking B. Growth discrepancy C. Tongue thrust habit D. Tooth to jaw size discrepancy E. Skeletal cause (discrepancy)

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Last Answer : E. Skeletal cause (discrepancy)

Why is the frequency of carbohydrate intake more important than the quantity: A. Low number of streptococcus mutans B. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration C. Homo formation is better at high sugar intake D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Description : Why is the frequency of carbohydrate intake more important than the quantity: A. Low number of streptococcus mutans B. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentration C. Homo formation is better at high sugar intake D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Last Answer : D. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque

Which of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide N2O: A. N2O has high analgesic and low anaesthetic property at its minimum anaesthetic dose. “Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic Concentration” B. Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia D. It is good anaesthetic and low MAC

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Last Answer : C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia

Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. S. mutans concentration of 105 organism/ml C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans D. A lactobacilli concentration of 105 organism/ml E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5 > 100000 CFU/ml high caries incidence

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Last Answer : E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5

In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true: a.Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility. b.Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease. c.Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been weakened. d.During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility.

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Last Answer : d.During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility.

How long would it take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filling in a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. 6 months B. 1 month C. 3 months

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What is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Bleeding B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

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Last Answer : B. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva

Acid conditioning of enamel and eroded dentine: A. Provides an none traumatic, conservative clinical approach to the bonding of restorative material B. Is a traumatic approach to bonding materials C. Is not a safe and simple method of bonding D. Bonding fails to produce a highly significant retention and good marginal integrity and clinical durability E. None of the above

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Last Answer : A. Provides an none traumatic, conservative clinical approach to the bonding of restorative material

The use of nickel chromium in base plate should be judiciously considered because: A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel B. A significant number of female are allergic to chromium C. A significant number of males are allergic to nickel

Description : The use of nickel chromium in base plate should be judiciously considered because: A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel B. A significant number of female are allergic to chromium C. A significant number of males are allergic to nickel

Last Answer : A. A significant number of females are allergic to nickel

In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true:** M07 A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structures have been weakened D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility E. Reliance on radiograph is essential

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Last Answer : D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility

The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be accompanying,** A. Lympha adenopathy B. Nodular consistency C. Facial paralysis D. Slow progressive enlargement E. Xerostomia

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Last Answer : C. Facial paralysis