The Writ used to control executive action in the areas of making appointments to public offices under relevant statutory provisions judicially is?

The Writ used to control executive action in the areas of
making appointments to public offices under relevant
statutory provisions judicially is?
by

1 Answer

Answer :

Quo Warranto.
by

Related questions

Section 57 of Indian evidence act- a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved c) In criminal cases previous good character relevant d) All the above

Description : Section 57 of Indian evidence act- a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved c) In criminal cases previous good character relevant d) All the above

Last Answer : a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice

Section 56 of Indian evidence act- a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved c) In criminal cases previous good character relevant d) All the above

Description : Section 56 of Indian evidence act- a) Fact of which the court must take judicial notice b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved c) In criminal cases previous good character relevant d) All the above

Last Answer : b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved

Making Executive Appointments as a Receptionist?

Description : Making Executive Appointments as a Receptionist?

Last Answer : At a law firm, the atmosphere can easily get crazy and overwhelming. As clients come in and out of the office, a receptionist may find her head spinning. To keep track of all appointments ... she should research the most effective ways of taking appointments and present these ideas at an interview.

Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled to be consulted by the President of India in the matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High Court? (1) The Union Minister of Law and Justice (2) The Advocate General of the State (3) The Attorney-General of India (4) The Governor

Description : Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled to be consulted by the President of India in the matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High Court? (1) The Union Minister of ... (2) The Advocate General of the State (3) The Attorney-General of India (4) The Governor

Last Answer : (4) The Governor Explanation: Clause (1) of Article 217 says that "every judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State.

Warning signs that cause the auditor to question management integrity must be taken seriously and pursued vigorously. Which of the following may lead the auditor to suspect management dishonesty? a. The client has been named as a defendant in a product liability suit. b. The client has experienced a decrease in revenue from increased import competition. c. A new statutory regulation making customer licenses more difficult to obtain may adversely affect the client's operations. d. The president and chief executive officer of the client corporation has held numerous meetings with the controller for the purpose of discussing accounting practices that will maximize reported profits

Description : Warning signs that cause the auditor to question management integrity must be taken seriously and pursued vigorously. Which of the following may lead the auditor to suspect management ... with the controller for the purpose of discussing accounting practices that will maximize reported profits

Last Answer : The president and chief executive officer of the client corporation has held numerous meetings with the controller for the purpose of discussing accounting practices that will maximize reported profits

Securities Appellate Tribunal is a/an __________ established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 A. Constitutional body B. Advisory body C. non-statutory body D. Statutory body E. None of the Above

Description : Securities Appellate Tribunal is a/an __________ established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 A. Constitutional body B. Advisory body C. non-statutory body D. Statutory body E. None of the Above

Last Answer : D. Statutory body Explanation: Securities Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.

In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provisions? (1) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture rural development, primary education and social forestry among other (2) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due (3) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength (4) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability

Description : In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provisions? (1) A number of ... strength (4) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability

Last Answer : (4) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability Explanation: Provision given in option (4) is not included under 73rd amendment act 1993.

The National Human Rights Commission is a a. Constitutional body b. Statutory body c. Executive body d. NG

Description : The National Human Rights Commission is a a. Constitutional body b. Statutory body c. Executive body d. NG

Last Answer : b. Statutory body

Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India? (1) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings. (2) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women. (3) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years. (4) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.

Description : Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India? (1) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in ... years. (4) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.

Last Answer : (3) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years. Explanation: Inflation in the country continued to moderate during 2017-I8. Consumer Price Index (CPI) based ... stated in the Economic Survey 2017-18. There was a significant reduction in food inflation too.

Appointment authority should keep gradation list of a) Officials , appointments to whose post, if vacant, are made by him b) Officials under control who are ordinarily liable for transfer by him c) Officials qualified for promotion to a higher grade, appointment to which are made by him d) All the above

Description : Appointment authority should keep gradation list of a) Officials , appointments to whose post, if vacant, are made by him b) Officials under control who are ordinarily liable for transfer by him c) Officials ... for promotion to a higher grade, appointment to which are made by him d) All the above

Last Answer : d) All the above

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule - (1) Assam (2) Manipur (3) Meghalaya (4) Tripura

Description : The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule - (1) Assam (2) Manipur (3) Meghalaya (4) Tripura

Last Answer : (2) Manipur Explanation: Tribal areas generally mean areas having preponderance of tribal population. However, the Constitution of India refers tribal areas within the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram, as ... I, II, IIA & III of the table appended to paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule.

Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a federal system? (1) There are two distinct levels of government (2) The responsibilities and powers of each level of government are clearly defined in a written Constitution (3) There is no separation of powers between the legislative and executive branches of government (4) A Supreme Court is entrusted with the responsibility of interpreting these provisions and arbitrating in matters of dispute

Description : Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a federal system? (1) There are two distinct levels of government (2) The responsibilities and powers of each level of ... Court is entrusted with the responsibility of interpreting these provisions and arbitrating in matters of dispute

Last Answer : (3) There is no separation of powers between the legislative and executive branches of government Explanation: One of the features of the federal system is the distribution of power ... importance. Both federal and state governments functioning strictly within the sphere demarcated for them.

Departmental undertakings, statutory corporations and government companies comes under the category of a. Public Private Partnership b. Private Sector Enterprises b. Incorporated Enterprises d. Public or State Enterprises

Description : Departmental undertakings, statutory corporations and government companies comes under the category of a. Public Private Partnership b. Private Sector Enterprises b. Incorporated Enterprises d. Public or State Enterprises

Last Answer : d. Public or State Enterprises

(i) Suggest the relevant method of water-proofing used for following construction. 1) Basement of buildings. 2) Swimming pool. 3) Water tank. (ii) Suggest the relevant method of transportation of concrete used for construction in following situation. 1) Concreting in hilly areas. 2) Concreting of high-rise building. 3) Concreting under water.

Description : (i) Suggest the relevant method of water-proofing used for following construction. 1) Basement of buildings. 2) Swimming pool. 3) Water tank. (ii) Suggest the relevant method of transportation of ... 1) Concreting in hilly areas. 2) Concreting of high-rise building. 3) Concreting under water.

Last Answer : Method of water-proofing for: 1) Basement of buildings: Waterproofing by using waterproof sealants. 2) Swimming pool: Waterproofing by spraying or grouting in cracks. 3) Water tank: Waterproofing by ... , concrete pump, slip form technique. 3) Concreting under water: Tremie pipe, grout pipe.

Direct Democracy is a system of Government in which – (1) People choose the Civil Servants (2) People directly elect their Representatives. (3) People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country. (4) Government officials consult people on various appointments.

Description : Direct Democracy is a system of Government in which – (1) People choose the Civil Servants (2) People directly elect their Representatives. (3) People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country. (4) Government officials consult people on various appointments.

Last Answer : (3) People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country. Explanation: In general, the term "direct democracy" usually refers to citizens making policy and law ... to a representative democracy in which people vote for representatives who then vote on policy initiatives.

Which writ is issued by the High court to the lower courts to stop legal action? (1) Habeas Corpus (2) Prohibition (3) Quo Warranto (4) Certiorari

Description : Which writ is issued by the High court to the lower courts to stop legal action? (1) Habeas Corpus (2) Prohibition (3) Quo Warranto (4) Certiorari

Last Answer : (2) Prohibition Explanation: Prohibition writ is issued by the high court to the lower courts to stop legal action. A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing something the law ... the subordinate, and the clerk prepares the writ and gives it to the Sheriff, who serves it.

The assumption underlying an audit of financial statements is that they will be used by a. Different groups for different purposes. b. The general public in making investment decisions. c. The board of directors as basis of declaring cash dividends. d. The regulatory agencies to verify information that is relevant to their supervisory functions.

Description : The assumption underlying an audit of financial statements is that they will be used by a. Different groups for different purposes. b. The general public in making investment decisions. c ... dividends. d. The regulatory agencies to verify information that is relevant to their supervisory functions.

Last Answer : Different groups for different purposes.

A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to – (1) an official to perform public duty (2) the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet (3) the company to raise wages (4) the Government to pay the salaries to employees

Description : A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to – (1) an official to perform public duty (2) the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet (3) the company to raise wages (4) the Government to pay the salaries to employees

Last Answer : (1) an official to perform public duty Explanation: The term "mandamus" literally means "command." Writ of mandamus is issued to a person or lower level Court or a body by a superior Court. ... a particular act. The writ of mandamus is an effective writ that checks the functioning of the government.

A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasi-judicial/public authority to petiomi its manciatoly dusty is – (1) Quo warrant (2) Mandamus (3) Certiorari (4) Prohibition

Description : A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasi-judicial/public authority to petiomi its manciatoly dusty is – (1) Quo warrant (2) Mandamus (3) Certiorari (4) Prohibition

Last Answer : (3) Certiorari Explanation: Equality before the law, also known as legal equality, is the principle under which all people are subject to the same laws of justice (due prodess). Article 14 of Indian ... has to face trial in the same law courts, irrespective of his status or position in the society.

The Writ used to enforce the performance of public duties by public authorities which are imposed by law is called?

Description : The Writ used to enforce the performance of public duties by public authorities which are imposed by law is called?

Last Answer : Mandamus.

__________ decides on a particular course of action. A. Legislature. B. Executive. C. Judiciary. D. Public.

Description : __________ decides on a particular course of action. A. Legislature. B. Executive. C. Judiciary. D. Public.

Last Answer : A. Legislature.

Discuss the role of Cabinet in maintaining control over appointments. -SST 10th

Description : Discuss the role of Cabinet in maintaining control over appointments. -SST 10th

Last Answer : All important appointments such as those of Governors, and other appointments to the key positions must be mentioned in the Cabinet before they are made public.

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains - (1) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas (2) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List (3) a list of recognized languages (4) provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection

Description : The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains - (1) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas (2) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List ( ... recognized languages (4) provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection

Last Answer : (2) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List Explanation: The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and includes The union (central government) state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with : (1) provisions related to the administration of tribal areas. (2) allocation of seats in the Council of States. (3) the Union List, The State List and the Concurrent List. (4) recognized languages of the Union of India.

Description : The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with : (1) provisions related to the administration of tribal areas. (2) allocation of seats in the Council of States. (3) the Union List, The State List and the Concurrent List. (4) recognized languages of the Union of India.

Last Answer : (2) allocation of seats in the Council of States Explanation: The Fourth Schedule [Articles 4(1) and 80(2)] of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the Constitution of India? (1) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the States. (2) It contains the language listed in the constitution. (3) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas. (4) It allocates seats in the council of states.

Description : Which of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the Constitution of India? (1) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the States. (2) It contains the ... regarding the administration of tribal areas. (4) It allocates seats in the council of states.

Last Answer : (4) It allocates seats in the council of states. Explanation: The fourth schedule of the constitution is about allocation of seats in the council of states. Fourth Schedule [Articles 4(1) and 80( ... allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.

Which of the following schedules contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram – (1) First schedule (2) Second schedule (3) Third schedule (4) Sixth schedule

Description : Which of the following schedules contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram – (1) First schedule (2) Second schedule (3) Third schedule (4) Sixth schedule

Last Answer : (4) Sixth schedule Explanation: The Sixth Schedule contains provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The Schedule aims to protect ... Arunachal Pradesh was also part of the Sixth Schedule and administered by the Governor of Assam.

Considering areas of concern, external network requirements, internal network requirements is the evaluation of a) Assess the security provisions for cloud applications b) Ensure cloud networks and connections are secure c) Manage people, roles and identities d) Understand the security requirements of the exit process

Description : Considering areas of concern, external network requirements, internal network requirements is the evaluation of a) Assess the security provisions for cloud applications b) Ensure cloud networks and ... Manage people, roles and identities d) Understand the security requirements of the exit process

Last Answer : Ensure cloud networks and connections are secure

When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to - (1) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court. (2) Special control exercised by the chief justice of India. (3) Discretionary power of the Governor of the State (4) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

Description : When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to - (1) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court. (2) Special control exercised ... power of the Governor of the State (4) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

Last Answer : (3) Discretionary power of the Governor of the State Explanation: According to Article 227(b), the Chief Justice of High Court when acts in an administrative capacity, any rules made by him ... inconsistent with the provision of any law in force and requires the previous approval of the governor.

Mark correct option relating to live mail survey a) The survey is to be conducted in one delivery PO in each Postal Division. b) The PO to be selected should have a reasonable quantity of mail for study. c) 25% of the Post Offices selected for the survey should be in rural areas d) At least 25% of the total mails received in the PO selected is to be studied. e) All the above

Description : Mark correct option relating to live mail survey a) The survey is to be conducted in one delivery PO in each Postal Division. b) The PO to be selected should have a reasonable quantity of mail for study. ... least 25% of the total mails received in the PO selected is to be studied. e) All the above

Last Answer : e) All the above

Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in – (1) High Courts alone (2) Supreme Court alone (3) Both Supreme Court and High Courts (4) All Courts down to the District Courts

Description : Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in – (1) High Courts alone (2) Supreme Court alone (3) Both Supreme Court and High Courts (4) All Courts down to the District Courts

Last Answer : (3) Both Supreme Court and High Courts Explanation: Indian Constitution has adopted 5 Prerogative writs. Article 13 clearly states that Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights ... to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights against any authority of the State.

The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court - (1) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice (2) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review (3) where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office (4) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.

Description : The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court - (1) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice (2) to an ... the office (4) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.

Last Answer : (1) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice Explanation: The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior ... because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.

Which type of writ is not issued under Indian constitution

Description : Which type of writ is not issued under Indian constitution

Last Answer : Injunction

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its (A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction (C) Original Jurisdiction (D) Writ Jurisdiction

Description : The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its (A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction (C) Original Jurisdiction (D) Writ Jurisdiction

Last Answer : (C) Original Jurisdiction

Which of these must hold a Statutory Meeting ? (A) Public Limited Company (B) Private Company (C) Unlimited Company (D) All of these

Description : Which of these must hold a Statutory Meeting ? (A) Public Limited Company (B) Private Company (C) Unlimited Company (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer: Public Limited Company

Which of the follwoing is an extraconstitutional and non-statutory body? (1) Finance Commission (2) Planning Commission (3) Union Public Service Commission (4) Election Commission

Description : Which of the follwoing is an extraconstitutional and non-statutory body? (1) Finance Commission (2) Planning Commission (3) Union Public Service Commission (4) Election Commission

Last Answer : (2) Planning Commission Explanation: The Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution ot statute, but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.

A public corporation means _____. A. public company. B. government company. C. statutory corporation. D. department of union government

Description : A public corporation means _____. A. public company. B. government company. C. statutory corporation. D. department of union government

Last Answer : C. statutory corporation.

The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the telecommunications. A. National telecommunications commission B. Telecommunications control bureau C. Department of transportation and communications D. Bureau of telecommunications

Description : The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the telecommunications. A. National telecommunications commission B. Telecommunications control bureau C. Department of transportation and communications D. Bureau of telecommunications

Last Answer : C. Department of transportation and communications

What are the knowledge areas relevant to doing a project?

Description : What are the knowledge areas relevant to doing a project?

Last Answer : Scope management, time and cost management knowledge areas are quite obvious. Same goes for quality management too. To complete a project in all its aspects one needs to be aware of the ... support areas. Since people get things done Human resources management is also an equally important area.

The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on account of which of the following reasons ? (a) Adjustment of voltage at consumers premises within statutory limits (b) Control of active and reactive power (c) Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal voltage variations in accordance with variations of load (d) All of the above

Description : The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on account of which of the following reasons ? (a) Adjustment of voltage at consumers premises within statutory limits (b) Control of ... daily and seasonal voltage variations in accordance with variations of load (d) All of the above

Last Answer : (d) All of the above

Which of the following is incorrect regarding schedule VI of our Constitution? (1) The areas are administered as Autonomous districts over which the executive authority of the states extends (2) The Government has the power to create new autonomous districts (3) The autonomous districts are provided with elected bodies known as district councils (4) It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland

Description : Which of the following is incorrect regarding schedule VI of our Constitution? (1) The areas are administered as Autonomous districts over which the executive authority of the states extends (2) ... 4) It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland

Last Answer : (4) It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland Explanation: Schedule VI of our Constitution does not deal with the administration of the tribal ... in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh in VI schedule of Indian Constitution.

The ideal strategic management team DOES NOT includes…. A. Chief executive officer (CEO) B. Product managers C. Heads of functional areas D. Shop-floor managers

Description : The ideal strategic management team DOES NOT includes…. A. Chief executive officer (CEO) B. Product managers C. Heads of functional areas D. Shop-floor managers

Last Answer : Shop-floor managers

The ideal strategic management team DOES NOT includes…. A. Chief executive officer (CEO) B. Product managers C. Heads of functional areas D. Shop-floor managers

Description : The ideal strategic management team DOES NOT includes…. A. Chief executive officer (CEO) B. Product managers C. Heads of functional areas D. Shop-floor managers

Last Answer : Shop-floor managers

A proceeding under Article 226 in case of detention of a person is a – (1) Civil proceeding (2) Criminal proceeding (3) Judicial proceeding (4) Statutory proceeding

Description : A proceeding under Article 226 in case of detention of a person is a – (1) Civil proceeding (2) Criminal proceeding (3) Judicial proceeding (4) Statutory proceeding

Last Answer : (2) Criminal proceeding Explanation: Under the writ of Habeas Corpus, the Court intervenes and asks the authority to provide the reasons for such detention. All proceedings under Article 226 are ... asks for any other writ than the Habeas Corpus, the proceedings are necessarily civil proceedings.

The companies which are formed under Companies Act.2013. They will be called as A. Chartered companies B. Statutory companies C. Registered companies D. None of these

Description : The companies which are formed under Companies Act.2013. They will be called as A. Chartered companies B. Statutory companies C. Registered companies D. None of these

Last Answer : C. Registered companies

The companies which are formed under special Act. Those companies are called as A. Chartered companies B. Statutory companies C. Registered companies D. None of these

Description : The companies which are formed under special Act. Those companies are called as A. Chartered companies B. Statutory companies C. Registered companies D. None of these

Last Answer : A. Chartered companies

The companies which are formed under special charter granted by the king or queen of England are called A. Statutory companies B. Registered companies C. Chartered companies D. None of these

Description : The companies which are formed under special charter granted by the king or queen of England are called A. Statutory companies B. Registered companies C. Chartered companies D. None of these

Last Answer : C. Chartered companies

What is the time span mentioned in RTI act 2005 for making order for removing difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the RTI Act 2005? a) 2 years from the commencement of the act b) 1 years from the commencement of the act c) 3 years from the commencement of the act d) 18 month from the commencement of the act

Description : What is the time span mentioned in RTI act 2005 for making order for removing  difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the RTI Act 2005? a) 2 years from the commencement of the act b) 1 ... act c) 3 years from the commencement of the act d) 18 month from the commencement of the act

Last Answer : a) 2 years from the commencement of the act