Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing
management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection?
There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection.
Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management,
and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient
has meningitis symptoms.
a) The incubation period is three to five days.
The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is
between 5–15 days.
b) Patients with West Nile virus present with gastrointestinal complaints,
such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
Most human infections are asymptomatic. When symptoms are
present, headache and fever are most frequently reported. Less than
one percent of those infected develop more severe illness, including
meningitis.
c) Transmission of West Nile virus occurs from human-to-human.
Birds are the natural reservoir for the virus. Mosquitoes become
infected when feeding on birds and can transmit the virus to animals
and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) The incubation period is three to five days.
The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is
between 5–15 days.
by

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Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. ... -Hallpike procedure. The Dix-Hallpike test is an assessment test used to evaluate for BPPV.

Last Answer : a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually.

Description : The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually. b) 15-50 days. The incubation ... 6-9 months. d) unclear. The incubation periods for hepatitis D, E, and G are unclear.

Last Answer : a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually.

The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.

Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

The herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. b) 0-3 months. The time period 0-3 months exceeds the incubation period. c) 20-30 days. The time period 20-30 days exceeds the incubation period. d) 3-6 months. The time period 3-6 months exceeds the incubation period.

Description : The herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. b) ... the incubation period. d) 3-6 months. The time period 3-6 months exceeds the incubation period.

Last Answer : a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions.

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Description : Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. ... Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.

Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to ... B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for nvCJD.

Last Answer : a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Description : Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include ... output to alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

Description : Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days ... ) two days. antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in?Acticoat place for up to five days.

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During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient’s health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) Implementation Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions. c) Diagnosis Diagnosis is the identification of patient problems. d) Evaluation Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Description : During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient's health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) ... patient's responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Last Answer : a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip. b) pillows under the lower legs. Pillows under the legs will not prevent the hips from rotating externally. c) a hip-abductor pillow. A hip-abductor pillow is used for the patient after total hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Description : In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be ... hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Last Answer : a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and ... analgesics. Topical analgesics such as capsaicin and methylsalicylate may be used for pain management.

Last Answer : a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.

Description : The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact. b) 3-6 months. The incubation period for HIV ... than 1 year. d) 5 years. The incubation period for HIV infection is greater than 5 years.

Last Answer : a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes. b) Assessment Assessment includes determining the patient’s readiness regarding learning. c) Planning and goals Planning includes identification of teaching strategies and writing the teaching plan. d) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

Description : Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing ... ) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

Last Answer : a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie source is contraindicated. B. In patients with pulmonary infection and sepsis, calorie support should consist of 95% fat and 5% glucose. C. In Askanazi's study, increased CO 2 production and difficulty in weaning was associated only with pronounced overfeeding. D. CO 2 production should be measured in most patients who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Description : Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie ... who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Few papers have excited as much interest as that by Askanazi, Kinney, and co-workers, which demonstrated that glucose calories given to patients with severe respiratory ... the caloric requirement and glucose for the remainder, without much fear of excessive CO 2 production

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from ... from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Last Answer : a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia? a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia? a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with ... such as memory loss, includes frequently reorienting the patient to time, place, and situation.

Last Answer : a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet.

While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient’s watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away B. Remind the patient that gift giving to any hospital staff is not allowed C. Review with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Description : While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient's watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away ... with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

Last Answer : D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience. Music diverts the patient’s attention away from the painful stimulus. Music may also provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, ... of burn pain. Pet therapy has not proven effective in the management of burn pain.

Last Answer : a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience ... orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)? a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)? a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or ... effects include respiratory failure, shock, and death within 24-36 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage through the use of physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

Description : The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic ... or potential health problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.

Last Answer : a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage ... physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

Description : If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area ... it is clamped because it may cause backflow of urine from the tubing into the bladder.

Last Answer : a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) A semi-sitting position in bed Semi-fowlers positioning is used to decrease the pressure of abdominal contents on the diaphragm. c) A sitting position with legs hanging off the side of the bed In order to prevent footdrop, the feet must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Description : To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) ... must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used.

Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Description : Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the ... term home IV therapy (eg, Port A Cath, Mediport, Hickman Port, P.A.S. Port).

Last Answer : a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Of the following terms, which is used to refer to the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place? a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place. b) Grief Grief is the personal feelings that accompany an anticipated or actual loss c) Mourning Mourning is the individual, family, group and cultural expressions of grief and associated behaviors d) Hospice Hospice is a coordinated program of interdisciplinary care and services provided primarily in the home to terminally ill patients and their families.

Description : Of the following terms, which is used to refer to the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place? a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning ... interdisciplinary care and services provided primarily in the home to terminally ill patients and their families.

Last Answer : a) Bereavement Bereavement is the period of time during which mourning a loss takes place.

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Description : Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or ... alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to the patient who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Description : Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several ... ) Application of a pneumatic compression device post PTCA has been demonstrated to be effective

Last Answer : a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.