A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled
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Answer: a, d  Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical Intensive Care Unit and in immunocompromised individuals. Prophylaxis with oral antifungal agents (nystatin) is warranted, especially during periods of maximal immunosuppression in transplant patients, in patients with uncontrolled diabetes, or during some cases of prolonged antibacterial microbial therapy. In general, local, apparently noninvasive Candida infections involving the integument and mucus membranes are treated with oral decontamination and topical antifungal therapy using topical agents such as nystatin. Candida urinary tract infections can be treated with either an oral antifungal agent or with topical amphotericin B as a continuous bladder irrigation. Several studies have demonstrated that those patients with three positive sites of Candida infection, or with peritoneal or blood cultures positive for Candida exhibit higher survival rates when amphotericin B therapy is instituted earlier in the course of infection. The presence of retinal changes compatible with Candida retinitis or Candida present within the peritoneal cavity are considered indications for a limited course of amphotericin B therapy (300% to 500 mg). Patients receiving exogenous immunosuppressive agents should undergo a marked dose reduction, and some agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated
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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

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Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

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There are a multitude of various dressings available. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning options for surgical dressings? a. Hydrocolloids, such as karaya compounds, offer the primary advantage of increased absorptive ability b. Films, such as Op-site, provide a water impermeable environment to achieve a dry wound c. Impregnates are fine gauze impregnated with a variety of substances such as antibiotics or moisturizing agents that adhere tightly to the wound and do not require a secondary dressing d. Absorptive powders and paste are highly useful in debriding necrotic and fibrous material from wounds and absorbing wound serum

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of antibiotics in wound care? a. Systemic antibiotics are indicated for all open wounds b. Bacterial resistance can occur with systemic but not topical antibiotics c. An indication for systemic antibiotic administration is a granulation tissue bacterial count in excess of greater than 105 organisms/gram of tissue on quantitative analysis d. Silver sulfadiazine is useful only for the management of burns

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True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. The presence of hyperglycemia and hypotension may suggest the diagnosis of shock due to adrenocortical insufficiency. C. Hydrocortisone does not interfere with the serum cortisol assay and should be given to hemodynamically unstable patients suspected of having hypoadrenal shock. D. The rapid adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

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Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

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Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie source is contraindicated. B. In patients with pulmonary infection and sepsis, calorie support should consist of 95% fat and 5% glucose. C. In Askanazi's study, increased CO 2 production and difficulty in weaning was associated only with pronounced overfeeding. D. CO 2 production should be measured in most patients who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

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The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is approximately 6% b. Multiple organ failure complicated with acute renal failure is associated with mortality ranging from 50% to 90% c. Recovery of renal function after six weeks is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

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A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

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Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been shown to reduce nosocomial pneumonias and to improve mortality rates. B. Enteral nutrition, as compared with parenteral nutrition, preserves the villus architecture of the gut. C. Gut dysfunction may be an effect of shock, but it may also contribute to the development of MODS by the mechanism of bacterial translocation. D. As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Description : Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been ... As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

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A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) have been proven correct by prospective trials? a. Preoperative TPN is beneficial in surgical patients with severe preoperative nutrition b. Postoperative TPN is of value following pancreatic resection c. Routine use of perioperative (including prior to the procedure) TPN is of benefit in patients undergoing hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Description : A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) ... hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Numerous clinical trials have failed to yield a consensus with regard to the efficacy of TPN in cancer patients. In 1991, a multicenter VA cooperative trial demonstrated ... patients receiving bone marrow transplantation has also been shown to be a valuable component of overall care

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

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Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland b. ACTH stimulation results in elevation of serum cortisol levels for up to a week after the operation c. An increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH may contribute to postoperative fluid retention d. An increase in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina, or oral cavity are commonly treated with a. cefotaxime.b. vidarabine. c. streptomycin. d. nystatin.

Description : A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina, or oral cavity are commonly treated with a. cefotaxime. b. vidarabine. c. streptomycin. d. nystatin.

Last Answer : d. nystatin.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the multiorgan failure syndrome (MOFS)? a. Changes in the splanchnic and pulmonary microcirculation are critical to the development of MOFS b. Tissue fixed microphages, including the liver Kupffer cell, have little role in the development of MOFS c. MOFS represents systemic consequences of loss of homeostatic control of local inflammation and microcirculatory hypoperfusion d. The nature of MOFS is highly dependent upon the etiology of the underlying problem

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the multiorgan failure syndrome (MOFS)? a. Changes in the splanchnic and pulmonary microcirculation are critical to the development of MOFS ... d. The nature of MOFS is highly dependent upon the etiology of the underlying problem

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The nature of multiorgan failure syndrome (MOFS) is that of a diffuse cellular injury, developing systemically as a consequence of losing homeostatic control of local ... of microorganism. In noninfectious cases, the response also appears independent of the specific underlying cause

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this arm of the surgical stress response? a. Cytokines primarily work locally via direct cell-to-cell communication b. Cytokines are never detectable in the systemic bloodstream c. Cytokines are produced only by immune cells attracted to the site of injury d. Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

Description : The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Cytokines, which are produced at the site of injury by endothelial cells and by diverse immune cells throughout the body, also occupy a pivotal position in the stress response ... act as hormones and spill over into the systemic circulation and become detectable in the bloodstream

A 16-year-old boy suffers a mid-gut volvulus with massive loss of small intestine. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his nutritional requirements and management? a. If at least 18 inches of residual small intestine survives, the patient may tolerate some form of enteral nutrition b. A nutritional regimen consisting of supplemental glutamine, growth hormone, and a modified high carbohydrate, low fat diet may be beneficial in this patient c. The regimen described above may decrease the cost of care d. TPN needs will increase after discontinuation of growth hormone

Description : A 16-year-old boy suffers a mid-gut volvulus with massive loss of small intestine. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his nutritional requirements and management? a. If ... above may decrease the cost of care d. TPN needs will increase after discontinuation of growth hormone

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Prior to the availability of TPN, most patients developing short bowel syndrome from either surgery or catastrophic event died. In selected patients, however, with ... the growth hormone did not increase TPN needs in patients once they had undergone successful gut rehabilitation

Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection b. In a patient with a maximal metabolic rate secondary to trauma, the presence of infection will increase the rate further c. Metabolic rate increases at a rate of approximately 10% for each increase of 1°C in central temperature d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Description : Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection ... d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Oxygen consumption is usually elevated in the infected patient. The extent of this increase is related to the severity of the infection, with peak elevations reaching 50% ... suggest that the metabolic rate increases 10% to 13% for each elevation of 1°C in central temperature

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as carbohydrate and half as fat b. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral feeds and is due to the high osmolarity of the carbohydrate components c. The hyperosmolar nature of parenteral fat solutions requires central venous administration d. Approximately 25–50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as ... -50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Most formulas for enteral feeding range from 1.0 to 2 cal/ml and include 3 to 7% protein. Most of the calories are supplied as glucose or sucrose, so that the solutions ... up to 25 to 50% of calories each day as fat emulsion may optimize the delivery of this caloric delivery

A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The patient likely is suffering from hypovolemic shock and should respond quickly to fluid resuscitation b. Beck’s triad will likely be an obvious indication of compressive cardiogenic shock due to pericardial tamponade c. Echocardiography is the most sensitive noninvasive approach for diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Description : A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his ... diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Last Answer : Answer: c Shock from cardiac compression occurs when external pressure on the heart impairs ventricular filling. Because ventricular filling is a function of venous return and myocardial compliance, ... sternotomy. Chest tube placement would not be appropriate as the sole treatment in this patient

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a adrenergic activity b. The renal and mesenteric vasoconstrictive effects of norepinephrine complicate and sometimes restrict its use c. The apparent paradoxical use of vasodilators, such as nitroprusside, in shock is indicated as a means to augment cardiac function d. Isoproterenol with its potent b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a ... b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Therapeutic adjustments of intravascular volume (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload) form the basis of the treatment strategies for all ... careful constant monitoring of arterial pressure and repeated hemodynamic measurements with a pulmonary artery catheter

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily allowance for protein may triple in critically ill patients c. Urinary nitrogen losses will approach 0 in the face of protein starvation d. Negative nitrogen balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily ... balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Last Answer : Answer: b, d About 15% of the total body weight is made up of proteins, about half of which are intracellular and half extracellular. In man and other animals, dietary protein is the source of ... is exceeded by the amount of nitrogen lost in the urine, stool, skin, wounds, and fistula drainage

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning excessive scarring processes? a. Keloids occur randomly regardless of gender or race b. Hypertrophic scars and keloid are histologically different c. Keloids tend to develop early and hypertrophic scars late after the surgical injury d. Simple reexcision and closure of a hypertrophic scar can be useful in certain situations such as a wound closed by secondary intention

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning excessive scarring processes? a. Keloids occur randomly regardless of gender or race b. Hypertrophic scars and keloid are histologically different ... scar can be useful in certain situations such as a wound closed by secondary intention

Last Answer : Answer: d True keloids are uncommon and occur predominantly in dark skinned people with a genetic predisposition for keloid formation. In most cases, the gene appears to be ... subside. Hypertrophic scars usually develop within the first month after wounding and often subside gradually

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D