Description : Documentary evidence originating from entity and held by the third party. Which one of the following is the correct order (high to low) of their degree of reliability ? (A) 4 - 1 - 3 – 2 (B) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (C) 4 - 2 - 3 – 1 (D) 3 - 1 - 4 - 2
Last Answer : Answer: 3 - 2 - 4 - 1
Description : Documentary evidence originating from third parties and held by the entity.
Last Answer : Documentary evidence originating from and held by the third party.
Description : Which of the following is least likely an application of maintaining an attitude of professional skepticism? a. The auditor is alert to audit evidence that contradicts or brings into question the ... audit evidence to be able to draw reasonable conclusions on which to base the audit opinion.
Last Answer : In planning and performing an audit, the auditor assumes that management is dishonest.
Description : Consider the following statements–
Last Answer : Managerial grid is an organizational concept that brings together teams of individuals from specialized jobs and departments for achieving specific results in defined periods of time.
Description : Consider the following statements in respect of the “Duty Free Import Authorization Scheme”.
Last Answer : The scheme offers the facility to import the required inputs before exports.
Last Answer : Authority in an organization is the formal or institutional right to command stemming from official delegation of position.
Description : Point out the incorrect answer. Evidence may be (a) Direct and indirect (b) Primary and secondary (c) Oral and documentary (d) Procedural and substantive
Last Answer : (d) Procedural and substantive
Description : A copy compared with a copy of a letter made by a copying machine is ___ evidence of the contents of the letter (a) Documentary (b) Primary (c) Secondary (d) None of these.
Last Answer : (c) Secondary
Description : Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed to be (a) Documentary evidence (b) Oral evidence (c) Neither A nor B (d) None of these
Last Answer : (b) Oral evidence
Description : Evidence under the Indian evidence act means and includes a) Oral and documentary evidence or both b) Documentary evidence c) Primary and circumstantial evidence d) Primary evidence
Last Answer : a) Oral and documentary evidence or both
Description : In which of the following cases no notice is required to be given to adverse pary before producing secondary documentary evidence? a) When original is destroyed b) When original is immovable c) When original is electronic record d) When original is in possession of adverse party
Last Answer : d) When original is in possession of adverse party
Description : Of documentary evidence explained in a) Chapter IV of Evidence Act b) Chapter III of Evidence Act c) Chapter V of Evidence Act d) None of these
Last Answer : c) Chapter V of Evidence Act
Description : Indian evidence act includes a) Oral evidence b) Documentary evidence c) Electronic records d) All the above
Last Answer : d) All the above
Description : Mark the correct option a) All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry such statements are called oral evidence b) ... documentary evidence c) Both the A and B are correct d) Neither A nor B are correct.
Last Answer : c) Both the A and B are correct
Description : Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes (a) Ocular evidence (b) Documentary evidence (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both (d) Ocular evidence based on documents only.
Last Answer : (c) Ocular and documentary evidence both
Description : he steps in the preparation of a worksheet do not include a. analyzing documentary evidence. b. preparing a trial balance on the worksheet. c. entering the adjustments in the adjustment columns. d. entering adjusted balances in the adjusted trial balance columns.
Last Answer : a. analyzing documentary evidence.
Description : Which of the following hold the highest value of evidence in the court? A. Documentary B. Demonstrative C. Testimonial D. Real
Last Answer : D. Real
Description : Which of the following hold the highest value of evidence in the court? a. Documentary b. Demonstrative c. Testimonial d. Real
Last Answer : d. Real
Description : Which of the following statements is correct? a. The fair presentation of audited financial statements in accordance with applicable financial reporting framework is an implicit part of the auditor's ... those who provide audit and tax services, also provide consulting services to their clients.
Last Answer : Most CPAs, including those who provide audit and tax services, also provide consulting services to their clients.
Description : Is it obvious or not obvious why some stores charge customers (annual for eg.) a fee in order to sell them their products?
Last Answer : I worked in a grocery store that was a Franchise and that company charges a fee to have the ideal placement on the shelves, or near the cash register , knowing that some people (or most) buy on impulse. That is why adverting of a product with colorful and eye catching themes becomes very important .
Description : Sometimes an auditor is called upon to review the operations of an enterprise for evaluating their cost-effectiveness. What is this kind of audit generally known as ? (A) Cost Audit (B) Operations Audit (C) Tax Audit (D) Independent Financial Audit
Last Answer : Answer: Cost Audit
Description : When the existing companies raise additional funds by issue of shares to the existing shareholders in proportion to their existing shareholdings, it is called– (A) Buyback of shares (B) Issue of shares at premium (C) Issue of shares at discount (D) Right shares issue
Last Answer : Answer: Right shares issue
Description : What is the theory of social responsibility that focuses on how companies respond to issues, rather than trying to determine their ultimate social responsibility, called ? (A) Corporate social performance (B) Corporate social responsiveness (C) Stewardship principle (D) Enlightened self-interest
Last Answer : Answer: Corporate social performance
Description : The ‘Principle of Exception’ states that management should– (A) Check everything without exception (B) Invariably take corrective action without exception (C) Accept exceptions in emergencies (D) Concentrate their attention on exceptions
Last Answer : Answer: Concentrate their attention on exceptions
Description : Some organizations have escalator clause in their labour agreements. What does this clause provide for ? (A) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on seniority (B) Wage increase depending on output ... index (D) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on increase in profits of the firm
Last Answer : Answer: Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on increase in profits of the firm
Description : The major forensic categories of devices where evidence can be found: a) Internet-based b) Stand-alone computers c) Mobile devices d) All of the above
Last Answer : d) All of the above
Description : 4. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence? a. Desktop, laptop, server b. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone c. Hardware, software, networks d. Open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems
Last Answer : d. Open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems
Description : What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence? a. Desktop, laptop, server b. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone c. Hardware, software, networks d. Open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems
Description : What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence? A. Desktop, laptop, server B. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone C. Hardware, software, networks D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded systems
Last Answer : D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded systems
Description : Which of the following statements is correct? a. Sufficiency refers to the quality of evidence, while appropriateness refers to the quantity of evidence. b. The reliability of evidence is ... are honest and have integrity relieves the auditor of the need to maintain professional scepticism.
Last Answer : The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of itself, impair the auditor’s independence
Description : Which of the following statements is true concerning evidence in an assurance engagement? a. The reliability of evidence is influenced not by its nature but by its source. b. Sufficiency is ... Appropriateness is the measure of the quality of evidence, that is, its reliability and persuasiveness.
Last Answer : Sufficiency is the measure of the quantity of evidence.
Description : It refers to the attribute or quality of audit evidence. a. Sufficiency b. Relevance c. Reliability d. Appropriateness
Last Answer : Appropriateness
Description : Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores? a. Validation b. Validity c. Reliability d. Prediction
Last Answer : a. Validation
Description : If the purchases made during the year were Rs. 60,000, the balance of stock in trade at the beginning and at the end of the year were Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 9,000 respectively and the gross profit on sales was 1/5th, when which ... year ? (A) Rs. 15,750 (B) Rs. 14,000 (C) Rs. 12,500 (D) Rs. 17,250
Last Answer : Answer: Rs. 12,500
Description : The loss on the sale of old furniture is debited to– (A) profit & loss account (B) furniture account (C) trading account (D) depreciation account
Last Answer : Answer: profit & loss account
Description : Maintenance of intended delegation requires that decisions lying within the individual managers' authority should be made by them and not referred upwards in the organizational hierarchy. This is ... scalar principle (C) authority level principle (D) principle of absoluteness of responsibility
Last Answer : Answer: authority level principle
Description : Wider span of control is effective in organization where– (A) authority delegation is inadequate (B) tasks are complex (C) thorough subordinate training scheme exists (D) the leadership style is authoritarian
Last Answer : Answer: thorough subordinate training scheme exists
Description : One of the major disadvantages of the Matrix form of organization structure is that– (A) it does not pinpoint product profit responsibility (B) it is not oriented towards results (C) there is possibility of disunity of command (D) it generates rivalry between line and staff members
Last Answer : Answer: there is possibility of disunity of command
Description : Which Stock Exchange was the first to introduce a transparent, screen-based trading system in the wholesale debt market including govt. securities in 1994 ? (A) Bombay Stock Exchange (B) Delhi Stock Exchange (C) National Stock Exchange (D) Jaipur Stock Exchange
Last Answer : Answer: National Stock Exchange
Description : Which one of the following statements is false ? (A) The Open Market Operations involve the sale or purchase of govt. securities by the Central Bank (B) The RBI manages longterm liquidity through ... change the proportion of govt. securities held by the RBI, Commercial Banks and Co-operative Banks
Last Answer : Answer: The RBI manages longterm liquidity through rapos
Description : The Open Market Operations [OMOs] is an important tool of– (A) Forex management (B) Liquidity management (C) Inventory management (D) Marketing management
Last Answer : Answer: Liquidity management
Description : Which one of the following is not an objective of the introduction of Primary Dealer System ? (A) To encourage a voluntary holding of govt. securities amongst a wider investor base (B) To ... (C) To strengthen the private equity infrastructure (D) To strengthen the govt. securities infrastructure
Last Answer : Answer: To strengthen the private equity infrastructure
Description : The tool used by auditor to monitor and control the progress of audit work is– (A) Engagement diary (B) Audit programme (C) Audit working papers (D) Audit notes.
Last Answer : Answer: Audit programme
Description : Which one of the following securities cannot be issued by a Public Limited Company in India ? (A) Participating preference shares (B) Redeemable preference shares (C) Deferred shares (D) Debentures.
Last Answer : Answer: Deferred shares
Description : If the goodwill raised at the time of retirement of a partner is to be written-off, then the capital accounts of the remaining partners are debited in– (A) New profit sharing ratio (B) Capital ratio (C) Old profit sharing ratio (D) Sacrificing ratio
Last Answer : Answer: Old profit sharing ratio
Description : When an incoming partner purchases his share from any one of the existing partners, then- (A) total assets of the firm do not change (B) total assets of the firm will be augmented to the extent ... ) change in total assets of the firm will depend upon the new profit sharing ratio of the partners
Last Answer : Answer: total assets of the firm do not change
Description : Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal can appeal to which one of the following and within how much period ? (A) High Court, within 30 days (B) ... Court within 60 days (C) SEBI within 90 days (D) Department of Companies Affairs within 60 days
Last Answer : Answer: Supreme Court within 60 days