Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory abnormalities include hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperkalemia c. Fever may be seen with hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory abnormalities include hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperkalemia c. Fever may be seen with hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock
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Answer: b, c, d  Shock of a dramatic nature, poorly responsive to resuscitation, may develop as a consequence of adrenal insufficiency. In this country, adrenal insufficiency most commonly arises as a consequence of the chronic therapeutic administration of high doses exogenous corticosteroids causing adrenal suppression. Other causes include idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease), tuberculosis, metastatic disease, bilateral hemorrhage, and amyloidosis. The stress of illness, operation, or trauma typically requires that the adrenal glands secrete cortisol in excess of that required in the nonstressed state (approximately 3–4 fold). Insufficiency not otherwise apparent may manifest itself only after major physical stress. Findings associated with adrenal insufficiency include weakness, fatigue, anorexia, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss. Surgical patients with significant adrenal insufficiency need not present with the above findings. More typical is the development of refractory shock, frequently with hyperthermia, in the course of injury or illness. Hypotension may be dramatic despite massive volume resuscitation and pressor support. Laboratory findings suggesting hypoadrenalism include hyponatremia, hypochloremia and hyperkalemia. The diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency may be confirmed or excluded by means of an ACTH stimulation test. A significant major cortisol response should be elicited by ACTH administration
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True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. The presence of hyperglycemia and hypotension may suggest the diagnosis of shock due to adrenocortical insufficiency. C. Hydrocortisone does not interfere with the serum cortisol assay and should be given to hemodynamically unstable patients suspected of having hypoadrenal shock. D. The rapid adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Description : True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. ... test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: Shock due to acute adrenocortical insufficiency is relatively uncommon but must be considered when shock refractory to volume replacement and pressor therapy is present. ... and it is the corticosteroid of choice while the ACTH stimulation test is being performed

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure ... responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d, e Classification schemes of shock based on cause have been developed for the seemingly dissimilar processes leading to circulatory collapse and the shock state. ... and pressor agents. The response to exogenous corticosteroids is usually dramatic and potentially life-saving

A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland b. ACTH stimulation results in elevation of serum cortisol levels for up to a week after the operation c. An increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH may contribute to postoperative fluid retention d. An increase in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

One of the following is not symptom of Addison’s disease: (A) Hypoglycemia (B) Hyponatremia (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hypochloremia

Description : One of the following is not symptom of Addison’s disease: (A) Hypoglycemia (B) Hyponatremia (C) Hypokalemia (D) Hypochloremia

Last Answer : Answer : C

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate clinical information b. The use of potassium hydroxide in preparing a specimen slide for light microscopy will be useful in identification of anaerobic bacteria c. Antibiotic sensitivity is determined by exposing the specific microorganism to varying amounts of antibiotic with the concentration of the antibiotic inhibiting growth referred to as the MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) d. Serum levels of antimicrobial agents should achieve in excess of a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate ... a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Because most surgical infections are polymicrobial, specimens should be cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, as well as fungi. Although aerobic and aerotolerant ... fold increase over MIC during the peak serum level have been demonstrated to be clinically efficacious

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

Description : Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ... is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular operations

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Coagulation tests include prothrombin time (PT), which measures the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of fibrinogen production and is the most common method for ... more while for peripheral vascular applications, values of 250 seconds or greater are considered appropriate

A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Description : A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral ... use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The low blood pressure can be assumed to be due to neurogenic shock b. The sole cause of hypotension is the loss of sympathetic input to the venous system c. Despite significant hypotension, secondary organ injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Description : A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/ ... injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Last Answer : Answer: c Neurogenic shock results from interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input and develops after spinal cord injury, spinal anesthesia, and severe head injury. Under normal conditions, baseline ... the cause is not neurogenic and search for occult blood loss or cardiogenic causes of shock

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial response to restore intravascular volume b. With larger volume hemorrhagic shock deterioration of normal cellular transmembrane potential occurs resulting in an increase in extracellular sodium and water c. The accumulation of anaerobic metabolites override normal homeostatic vasomotor tone and contribute to the maladaptive vasodilatation d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial ... d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Moderate hypovolemia results in a relatively rapid spontaneous restitution of intravascular volume through expansion of the plasma space. This plasma expansion by ... potassium pump. Cellular dysfunction also appears to be related to abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose metabolism lead to the development of efficient substrate utilization b. A progressive rise in serum triglyceride levels result from less efficient clearance and increased hepatic lipogenesis c. A net negative nitrogen balance occurs due to the oxidative metabolism of proteins to meet energy needs d. The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose ... The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Last Answer : Answer: b, c A broad spectrum of metabolic abnormalities become apparent in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome following shock. Disruption of the normal cycles of carbohydrate, ... acetyl coenzyme A. This results in reduced serum level of leucine, isoleucine and valine

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made at end inspiration, to minimize ventilatory artifacts. B. Continuous SvO 2 monitoring based on the technique of reflectance spectrophotometry has been shown to be accurate and reliable. C. Direct measurement of gastric intramucosal pH can be provided by gastrointestinal tonometry. D. Hyperlactatemia may be seen in a number of clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a adrenergic activity b. The renal and mesenteric vasoconstrictive effects of norepinephrine complicate and sometimes restrict its use c. The apparent paradoxical use of vasodilators, such as nitroprusside, in shock is indicated as a means to augment cardiac function d. Isoproterenol with its potent b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a ... b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Therapeutic adjustments of intravascular volume (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload) form the basis of the treatment strategies for all ... careful constant monitoring of arterial pressure and repeated hemodynamic measurements with a pulmonary artery catheter

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The patient likely is suffering from hypovolemic shock and should respond quickly to fluid resuscitation b. Beck’s triad will likely be an obvious indication of compressive cardiogenic shock due to pericardial tamponade c. Echocardiography is the most sensitive noninvasive approach for diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Description : A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his ... diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Last Answer : Answer: c Shock from cardiac compression occurs when external pressure on the heart impairs ventricular filling. Because ventricular filling is a function of venous return and myocardial compliance, ... sternotomy. Chest tube placement would not be appropriate as the sole treatment in this patient

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% of systemic vascular resistance b. Endogenous epinephrine is the primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance c. Increased pancreatic secretion of glucagon contributes to glucose intolerance associated with injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of hypovolemic shock? a. A fall in hematocrit or hemoglobin always accompanies hemorrhagic shock b. The treatment of shock is generic regardless of the etiology c. Pharmacologic intervention to increase myocardial contractility in hypovolemic shock is an important part the early management d. Complications are less frequent after treatment of hemorrhagic shock than septic or traumatic shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of hypovolemic shock? a. A fall in hematocrit or hemoglobin always accompanies hemorrhagic shock b. The ... d. Complications are less frequent after treatment of hemorrhagic shock than septic or traumatic shock

Last Answer : Answer: d Hypovolemic shock is readily diagnosed when there is an obvious source of volume loss and overt signs of hemodynamic instability and increased adrenergic output are present. ... response systems and consequences of their disseminated, indiscriminate cellular injury can be quite profound

Most hormone receptors are localized on the cell membrane and transduce hormone binding into altered levels of intracellular messengers. A limited number of intracellular receptors do exist. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning intracellular receptors? a. The messengers or hormones must by lipophilic b. These intracellular receptors generally regulate protein synthesis c. The intracellular receptors are located entirely in the nucleus of the cell d. A heat-shock protein serves as an inhibitor protein blocking the DNA-binding domain of the steroid receptor

Description : Most hormone receptors are localized on the cell membrane and transduce hormone binding into altered levels of intracellular messengers. A limited number of intracellular receptors do exist. Which of ... protein serves as an inhibitor protein blocking the DNA-binding domain of the steroid receptor

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Although most hormone and other messenger receptors are extracellular, intracellular receptors have been identified. The hormone messengers involved for these receptors are primarily ... DNA-binding domain of the receptor. Activation involves the dissociation of the inhibitor protein

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the toxic effects that occur during gram-negative bacterial sepsis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning LPS and the host response. a. The LPS molecule can in itself cause physiologic responses similar to that seen during gram-negative bacterial sepsis b. LPS triggers host macrophages to release a variety of cytokines including TNF-a, IL-1a, and IL-1b, IL-6, and IFN-a c. Excessive cytokine production is not associated with detrimental consequences d. TNFa and IL-1b appear to be the primary mediators within the host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the syst

Description : Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the ... host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the systemic circulation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d The LPS molecule exerts diverse effects on the mammalian host. Immunologic responses to LPS include nonspecific polyclonal B-cell proliferation, macrophage activation and ... deleterious effects on the host only after large amounts are secreted and reach the systemic circulation

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the ... serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate ... system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. Venoconstriction from skeletal muscle is a significant contributor to the restoration of blood volume with shock c. Arterial vasoconstriction affects all vascular beds equally d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. ... d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Last Answer : Answer: a Central in the general cardiovascular response to shock is the action of the heart itself. The principle determinants of cardiac function in the normal heart are the volume of blood ... Blood flow to the skin is sacrificed early, followed by that to the kidneys and splanchnic viscera

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway of the compliment cascade b. Eicosanoids, such as prostaglandins are stored in platelets and endothelial cells and released in response to inflammatory stimuli c. Thromboxane and PGI2 have similar effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway ... effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

Last Answer : Answer: d Inflammatory mediators have recently been recognized as playing a significant role in the clinical manifestations and progression of shock and the development ... increased pulmonary vascular resistance, bronchoconstriction, peripheral vasodilatation, and increased vascular permeability

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the capillaries and worsens the condition c. Mannitol is contraindicated as a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the ... a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Last Answer : Answer: a Treatment of pulmonary edema has two important goals, the first is to improve oxygenation if it is impaired, and the second is to minimize fibrosis and bacterial infection, which often ... leaks out , the short term effects of expanding blood volume and decrease in edema will appear

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive

Which of the following statements about head injury and concomitant hyponatremia are true? A. There are no primary alterations in cardiovascular signs. B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure may be masked by the hyponatremia. C. Oliguric renal failure is an unlikely complication. D. Rapid correction of the hyponatremia may prevent central pontine injury. E. This patient is best treated by restriction of water intake.

Description : Which of the following statements about head injury and concomitant hyponatremia are true? A. There are no primary alterations in cardiovascular signs. B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure may be ... central pontine injury. E. This patient is best treated by restriction of water intake.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: Acute symptomatic hyponatremia is characterized by central nervous system signs of increased intracranial pressure. Changes in blood pressure and pulse are secondary to ... lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Oliguric renal failure may rapidly develop in severe hyponatremia

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics must include the initiation of the agent prior to the surgical procedure b. Continuing the antibiotic into the postoperative period has led to improved results in antibiotic prophylaxis c. The prophylactic administration of broad-spectrum agents (third-generation cephalosporins) has been shown to be particularly advantageous d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Description : The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic ... d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Last Answer : Answer: a Intravenous administration of an antibiotic is clearly indicated for patients undergoing clean contaminated operations. These antibiotics should be administered prior to surgery ... of antimicrobial agents is equivalent to the administration of intravenous antimicrobial agent antibiotics

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Description : Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Last Answer : Answer: c, d IL-6 is now recognized at the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Glucocorticoid hormones augment ... that generally inhibit the tissue destruction that is associated with the local initiation of inflammation

There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning energy converting transport? a. The site of energy conversion and transport in the plasma membrane involves the phospholipid component b. The Na+-K++-ATPase derives energy from hydrolysis of extracellular ATP c. In some systems, energy inherent in the transmembrane ion gradient can be used to drive transport of a second species d. Examples of species transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Description : There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s ... transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The selectivity of the plasma membrane, although impressive, cannot account for the nonequilibrium composition of living cells. A cell can be maintained in a nonequilibrium state only by ... to drive the transport of a second species such as protons, calcium, amino acids, or glucose

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the following statements about the coagulation cascade is/are true? A. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is the predominant pathway in vivo for hemostasis and coagulation. B. The intrinsic pathway beginning with the activation of factor XII is the predominant in vivo mechanism for activation of the coagulation cascade. C. Deficiencies of factor VIII and IX cause highly significant coagulation abnormalities. D. Deficiencies of factor XII cause severe clinical bleeding syndromes.

Description : Which of the following statements about the coagulation cascade is/are true? A. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is the predominant pathway in vivo for hemostasis and coagulation. ... coagulation abnormalities. D. Deficiencies of factor XII cause severe clinical bleeding syndromes.

Last Answer : Answer: AC DISCUSSION: Although it was previously held that two somewhat distinct pathways existed for the activation of the coagulation cascade, it is now recognized that the predominant ... bleeding. This further emphasizes the secondary role that the intrinsic pathway plays in coagulation

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

Essential fatty acid deficiency may complicate total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements are true? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be prevented by the administration of 1% to 2% of total calories as fat emulsion. B. Fat-free parenteral nutrition results in the appearance of plasma abnormalities, indicating essential fatty acid deficiency, within 7 to 10 days of initiation. C. An abnormal plasma eicosatrienoic-arachidonic acid ratio is always associated with essential fatty acid deficiency. D. Following initiation of fat-free parenteral nutrition, dry, scaly skin associated with a maculopapular rash indicates essential fatty acid deficiency.

Description : Essential fatty acid deficiency may complicate total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements are true? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be prevented by the ... , dry, scaly skin associated with a maculopapular rash indicates essential fatty acid deficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Biochemical evidence of essential fatty acid deficiency may occur as early as 7 to 10 days following initiation of fat-free parenteral nutrition. The decrease in ... essential to the diagnosis of essential fatty acid deficiency, but this plasma abnormality is often present

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carrier proteins? a. Carrier proteins are distinguished by three types of mechanisms: carrier-type, channel-type, and conduction-type b. Conformational changes in the membrane protein occur between the conducting and the nonconducting states c. A channel-type carrier protein has two states—closed and open d. Carrier-type transport proteins are equally accessible from either side of the membrane

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carrier proteins? a. Carrier proteins are distinguished by three types of mechanisms: carrier-type, channel-type, and conduction-type b. ... and open d. Carrier-type transport proteins are equally accessible from either side of the membrane

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Most transport proteins appear to function as carriers, rather than channels. Important distinctions can be made between types of carrier proteins on the basis of transport kinetics. ... a carrier mechanism, the binding site is available only one side of the membrane at any instant

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular ion channels? a. Ion channels are transmembrane proteins that form pores that can conduct ions across the plasma membrane b. Ion channels are formed by membrane-spanning peptides that are arranged so that polar moieties line a central core c. Ion channel proteins undergo conformational changes between open states and closed states d. Ion channels can be blocked

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular ion channels? a. Ion channels are transmembrane proteins that form pores that can conduct ions across the plasma membrane b. ... undergo conformational changes between open states and closed states d. Ion channels can be blocked

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Ion channels are transmembrane proteins that form pores that can conduct ions across the plasma membrane. Ion channels are formed by membrane-spanning peptides that are arranged ... be blocked by ions or organic compounds that enter the channel, bind there, and occlude the pore

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as carbohydrate and half as fat b. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral feeds and is due to the high osmolarity of the carbohydrate components c. The hyperosmolar nature of parenteral fat solutions requires central venous administration d. Approximately 25–50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as ... -50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Most formulas for enteral feeding range from 1.0 to 2 cal/ml and include 3 to 7% protein. Most of the calories are supplied as glucose or sucrose, so that the solutions ... up to 25 to 50% of calories each day as fat emulsion may optimize the delivery of this caloric delivery