Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission
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Answer: c, d  The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of non-A, non-B hepatitis known as hepatitis C. All blood products except for immune serum globulin and albumin can carry and transmit this form of hepatitis. Because heat treatment eliminates the risk of viral transmission, products from pooled plasma that are heat treated such as albumin are not at risk for HIV or hepatitis transmission. CMV transmission exists in three forms—primary, reinfection, and reactivation. Primary exposure results in an IgM response to the virus. Reactivation is most commonly related to pregnancy, transplantation, and immunosuppression, and is the most important cause of post-transfusion disease accompanying immunosuppression of patients. Although the risk of the public concern for transmission of HIV disease associated with blood transfusions has significantly outweighed other infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis
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Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A. The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) have been decreasing progressively since the early 1980s. B. The transmission rates of hepatitis have been decreasing steadily since the 1980s. C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the infectious agent most commonly transmitted in blood. D. Severely immunocompromised patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A. The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ... patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: The incidence of both HIV and hepatitis transmitted via blood transfusions has been steadily decreasing since the 1980s. This is related to improved ... , severely compromised patients such as those undergoing transplantation should receive CMV-negative blood products

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the capillaries and worsens the condition c. Mannitol is contraindicated as a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the ... a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

Last Answer : Answer: a Treatment of pulmonary edema has two important goals, the first is to improve oxygenation if it is impaired, and the second is to minimize fibrosis and bacterial infection, which often ... leaks out , the short term effects of expanding blood volume and decrease in edema will appear

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight loss of greater than 10% over 2 to 4 months. B. Serum albumin of less than 3 gm. per 100 ml. in the hydrated state. C. Malnutrition as identified by global assessment. D. Serum transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Description : A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight ... transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of these are at least partially correct. It is not clear whether weight loss of 10% or 15% is the required threshold, but it certainly is close. Serum ... the hands of an experienced observer is quite a reasonable way of approaching and identifying patients at risk

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the assessment of protein reserve? a. Conventional serum proteins such as albumin and globulin are early indicators of malnutrition b. The total lymphocyte count reflects immune status and not nutrition c. Antigen skin testing reflects patient immunity and not nutrition d. Measurement of urea excretion in urine can be used as a measurement of protein breakdown

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the assessment of protein reserve? a. Conventional serum proteins such as albumin and globulin are early indicators of malnutrition b. The ... d. Measurement of urea excretion in urine can be used as a measurement of protein breakdown

Last Answer : Answer: d Since protein is the functional and structural chemical of the body, most nutritional assessment techniques are estimates of protein reserves. The actual nitrogen balance can ... patients convert from reactive to anergic, and reactivity can be restored by nutritional repletion

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Description : Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ... physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

Last Answer : Answer: c, d IL-6 is now recognized at the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Glucocorticoid hormones augment ... that generally inhibit the tissue destruction that is associated with the local initiation of inflammation

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results in selective thrombolysis at the fibrin clot surface. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning agents used in thrombolytic therapy? a. Streptokinase is a bacterial protein which is antigenic in humans, resulting in allergic reactions in up to l5% of cases b. Tissue plasminogen activator acts directly on plasmin without an intermediate drug–plasmin complex c. The half-life of urokinase, streptokinase, and TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

Description : Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results ... TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Streptokinase is a bacterial protein produced by group C b-hemolytic streptococci. It is therefore antigenic in humans and can be associated with allergic reaction in ... one agent over the other. Streptokinase however, is markedly less expensive than either urokinase or TPA

A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ failure. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning necessary changes to be made in his nutritional management? a. Carbohydrate load should be reduced in the face of respiratory failure b. In patients with renal failure, protein intake should be diminished c. During hemodialysis protein intake should be limited to the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Description : A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ ... the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The most severe complication of sepsis is multiple system organ dysfunction syndrome, which may result in death. The development of organ failure requires changes in the ... should be provided as fat emulsion. If encephalopathy develops, protein load should also be reduced0

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate clinical information b. The use of potassium hydroxide in preparing a specimen slide for light microscopy will be useful in identification of anaerobic bacteria c. Antibiotic sensitivity is determined by exposing the specific microorganism to varying amounts of antibiotic with the concentration of the antibiotic inhibiting growth referred to as the MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) d. Serum levels of antimicrobial agents should achieve in excess of a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate ... a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Because most surgical infections are polymicrobial, specimens should be cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, as well as fungi. Although aerobic and aerotolerant ... fold increase over MIC during the peak serum level have been demonstrated to be clinically efficacious

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as carbohydrate and half as fat b. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral feeds and is due to the high osmolarity of the carbohydrate components c. The hyperosmolar nature of parenteral fat solutions requires central venous administration d. Approximately 25–50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as ... -50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Most formulas for enteral feeding range from 1.0 to 2 cal/ml and include 3 to 7% protein. Most of the calories are supplied as glucose or sucrose, so that the solutions ... up to 25 to 50% of calories each day as fat emulsion may optimize the delivery of this caloric delivery

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the ... serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate ... system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure ... responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d, e Classification schemes of shock based on cause have been developed for the seemingly dissimilar processes leading to circulatory collapse and the shock state. ... and pressor agents. The response to exogenous corticosteroids is usually dramatic and potentially life-saving

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the clinical management of an open wound? a. A wet-to-dry dressing is the most optimal form of wound management b. A moist occlusive dressing promotes epithelialization and reduces pain c. The protein rich plasma exudate covering the open wound facilitates healing d. Irrigation of the wound disrupts epithelialization therefore inhibiting the healing process

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the clinical management of an open wound? a. A wet-to-dry dressing is the most optimal form of wound management ... wound facilitates healing d. Irrigation of the wound disrupts epithelialization therefore inhibiting the healing process

Last Answer : Answer: b Epithelialization is more rapid under moist conditions than dry conditions. Without dressings, a superficial wound, or one with minimal devitalized tissue forms a scab or ... dysfunction, increases the distance for diffusion from oxygen and nutrient sources to their metabolic targets

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie source is contraindicated. B. In patients with pulmonary infection and sepsis, calorie support should consist of 95% fat and 5% glucose. C. In Askanazi's study, increased CO 2 production and difficulty in weaning was associated only with pronounced overfeeding. D. CO 2 production should be measured in most patients who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Description : Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie ... who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Few papers have excited as much interest as that by Askanazi, Kinney, and co-workers, which demonstrated that glucose calories given to patients with severe respiratory ... the caloric requirement and glucose for the remainder, without much fear of excessive CO 2 production

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep muscular fascia c. An impaired immune system is a common factor predisposing to this condition d. The infection is usually polymicrobial e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep ... e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d, e Necrotizing fascitis is an uncommon infection of the deep and superficial fascia that is associated with mortality as high as 40% in many series. ... fulminant and is frequently associated with cellulitis, myositis, fascitis, and bacteremia with attendant high mortality

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose metabolism lead to the development of efficient substrate utilization b. A progressive rise in serum triglyceride levels result from less efficient clearance and increased hepatic lipogenesis c. A net negative nitrogen balance occurs due to the oxidative metabolism of proteins to meet energy needs d. The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose ... The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Last Answer : Answer: b, c A broad spectrum of metabolic abnormalities become apparent in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome following shock. Disruption of the normal cycles of carbohydrate, ... acetyl coenzyme A. This results in reduced serum level of leucine, isoleucine and valine

True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. The presence of hyperglycemia and hypotension may suggest the diagnosis of shock due to adrenocortical insufficiency. C. Hydrocortisone does not interfere with the serum cortisol assay and should be given to hemodynamically unstable patients suspected of having hypoadrenal shock. D. The rapid adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Description : True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. ... test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: Shock due to acute adrenocortical insufficiency is relatively uncommon but must be considered when shock refractory to volume replacement and pressor therapy is present. ... and it is the corticosteroid of choice while the ACTH stimulation test is being performed

Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made at end inspiration, to minimize ventilatory artifacts. B. Continuous SvO 2 monitoring based on the technique of reflectance spectrophotometry has been shown to be accurate and reliable. C. Direct measurement of gastric intramucosal pH can be provided by gastrointestinal tonometry. D. Hyperlactatemia may be seen in a number of clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Description : A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral ... use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following statements is/are true? A. This formulation is proposed for the use of patients with fulminant hepatitis. B. Nitrogen balance is achieved in such patients with amounts of 40 gm. of amino acids per 24 hours. C. The use of 80 to 100 gm. of such solutions is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Description : A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following ... D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: The use of modified amino acid solutions is based on the false neurotransmitter hypothesis of the cause of hepatic coma. According to this hypothesis, the imbalance ... in a group of patients with cirrhosis, decreasing morbidity and showing a trend toward decreased mortality

A number of changes in trace mineral metabolism are noted during sepsis. Which of the following change(s) may be observed in a septic or trauma patient? a. Plasma iron levels are noted to decrease b. Plasma copper levels are noted to decrease c. Plasma serum zinc levels may decrease d. Administration of iron is appropriate

Description : A number of changes in trace mineral metabolism are noted during sepsis. Which of the following change(s) may be observed in a septic or trauma patient? a. Plasma iron levels are noted to ... are noted to decrease c. Plasma serum zinc levels may decrease d. Administration of iron is appropriate

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Changes in the balance of magnesium, inorganic phosphate, zinc, and potassium generally follow alterations in nitrogen balance. Although the iron-binding capacity of transferrin ... concentrations can be ascribed almost entirely to the levels of the ceruloplasmin produced by the liver

There are a multitude of various dressings available. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning options for surgical dressings? a. Hydrocolloids, such as karaya compounds, offer the primary advantage of increased absorptive ability b. Films, such as Op-site, provide a water impermeable environment to achieve a dry wound c. Impregnates are fine gauze impregnated with a variety of substances such as antibiotics or moisturizing agents that adhere tightly to the wound and do not require a secondary dressing d. Absorptive powders and paste are highly useful in debriding necrotic and fibrous material from wounds and absorbing wound serum

Description : There are a multitude of various dressings available. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning options for surgical dressings? a. Hydrocolloids, such as karaya compounds, offer ... are highly useful in debriding necrotic and fibrous material from wounds and absorbing wound serum

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Although the simplest dressing of gauze and tape combined with the use of antibacterial ointment can achieve moist wound healing in most patients. A multitude of other ... agents have high absorbency for tissue wound fluid and debride necrotic and fibrous material from the wound

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is approximately 6% b. Multiple organ failure complicated with acute renal failure is associated with mortality ranging from 50% to 90% c. Recovery of renal function after six weeks is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is ... is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Survival of patients with acute renal failure is a function of the successful treatment of the primary disease from which the renal failure was derived. The mortality ... is unlikely. Nonoliguric renal failure is usually limited in its extent and is almost always reversible

Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of hypoxanthine and xanthene b. Oxygen free radicals such as the superoxide radical are involved in the expression of the proinflammatory phenotype of endothelial cells, macrophages and neutrophils c. The intracellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAN-1) contributes to injury and disruption of the endothelial lining, with extensive capillary leak and resultant interstitial edema d. Animal models have demonstrated that passive immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of ... immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d During the ischemia and hypoperfusion phase, degradation of ATP stores essential to maintain cell integrity and significant loss of diffusible ... either the neutrophil adhesive complex or the endothelial selectins dramatically lessens ischemia/reperfusion microvascular injury

Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the work of breathing b. Mechanical ventilation can decrease the energy expenditure for normal respiration c. For a 70 kg male, average resting energy consumption is almost 1500 kcal/day d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Description : Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the ... d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Basal energy requirements are measured with the subject at rest when no external work is being done; the energy is used mainly for transport and synthetic work within cells. A ... average-sized adult who sustains a major burn rarely may require more than 3500 kcal/day for maintenance

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Description : Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of ... a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily allowance for protein may triple in critically ill patients c. Urinary nitrogen losses will approach 0 in the face of protein starvation d. Negative nitrogen balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily ... balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Last Answer : Answer: b, d About 15% of the total body weight is made up of proteins, about half of which are intracellular and half extracellular. In man and other animals, dietary protein is the source of ... is exceeded by the amount of nitrogen lost in the urine, stool, skin, wounds, and fistula drainage

Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of TPN on the GI tract? a. Patients receiving TPN have an accentuated systemic response to endotoxin challenge compared to enterally fed volunteers b. TPN can result in disruption of intestinal microflora c. In experimental models, bacterial translocation from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure

The most common cause of fatal transfusion reactions is: A. An allergic reaction. B. An anaphylactoid reaction. C. A clerical error. D. An acute bacterial infection transmitted in blood.

Description : The most common cause of fatal transfusion reactions is: A. An allergic reaction. B. An anaphylactoid reaction. C. A clerical error. D. An acute bacterial infection transmitted in blood.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: The most common cause of fatalities related to transfusion reactions result from ABO-incompatible transfusion related to clerical error. Most such reactions occur if a ... with platelet concentrates maintained at or near room temperature. Fortunately, such reactions are rare

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive