Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function
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Answer: a, c  In monitoring the effect of heparin, an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5  control or a thrombin clotting time (TCT) of 2 times control reflects adequate anticoagulation. The prothrombin time remains normal. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia from an immune mechanism is a potential complication of the use of this anticoagulant. Therefore any patient undergoing heparin therapy should have a platelet count determined every other day after the fourth day of therapy or earlier if he or she is known to have been exposed to heparin in the past. Heparin is not excreted through the kidneys or the liver but is cleared through the reticuloendothelial system. Therefore the dose of heparin need not be adjusted in cases of liver or renal dysfunction
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Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

Description : Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ... is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular operations

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Coagulation tests include prothrombin time (PT), which measures the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of fibrinogen production and is the most common method for ... more while for peripheral vascular applications, values of 250 seconds or greater are considered appropriate

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency with an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) and/or an abnormal activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. For the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Description : The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency ... the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: The use of FFP as a volume expander is not indicated. There are currently several preparations (both crystalloid and colloid) that are equally effective and do not carry the infectious and ... vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and protein S

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated intervascular coagulation (DIC) is considered. Which of the following laboratory test(s) is/are indicative of DIC? a. Decreased platelet count b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Description : A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated ... b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the primary form of acute thrombosis. Causes of this syndrome include abruptio placenta, gram-positive and gram-negative sepsis, ... decline in the platelet count and fibrinogen level, along with an elevation of fibrin split products

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : B. Activated partial thromboplastin time

Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient’s activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. b) .5 to 1 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. c) 2.5 to 3 An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. d) .25 to .75 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Description : Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient's activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT ... value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Last Answer : a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is approximately 6% b. Multiple organ failure complicated with acute renal failure is associated with mortality ranging from 50% to 90% c. Recovery of renal function after six weeks is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the outcome in patients with acute renal failure? a. Mortality for ischemic acute tubular necrosis without other organ failure is ... is unlikely d. There is no difference in survival between oliguric and nonoliguric renal failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Survival of patients with acute renal failure is a function of the successful treatment of the primary disease from which the renal failure was derived. The mortality ... is unlikely. Nonoliguric renal failure is usually limited in its extent and is almost always reversible

The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand’s disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level ptt also prolonged decreased platelet count. B. Bleeding time and factor IX level C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time

Description : The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand's disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and ... C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time

Last Answer : A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level ptt also prolonged decreased platelet count

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the assessment of protein reserve? a. Conventional serum proteins such as albumin and globulin are early indicators of malnutrition b. The total lymphocyte count reflects immune status and not nutrition c. Antigen skin testing reflects patient immunity and not nutrition d. Measurement of urea excretion in urine can be used as a measurement of protein breakdown

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the assessment of protein reserve? a. Conventional serum proteins such as albumin and globulin are early indicators of malnutrition b. The ... d. Measurement of urea excretion in urine can be used as a measurement of protein breakdown

Last Answer : Answer: d Since protein is the functional and structural chemical of the body, most nutritional assessment techniques are estimates of protein reserves. The actual nitrogen balance can ... patients convert from reactive to anergic, and reactivity can be restored by nutritional repletion

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ failure. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning necessary changes to be made in his nutritional management? a. Carbohydrate load should be reduced in the face of respiratory failure b. In patients with renal failure, protein intake should be diminished c. During hemodialysis protein intake should be limited to the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Description : A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ ... the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The most severe complication of sepsis is multiple system organ dysfunction syndrome, which may result in death. The development of organ failure requires changes in the ... should be provided as fat emulsion. If encephalopathy develops, protein load should also be reduced0

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Description : There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

Last Answer : Answer: a, b A number of hypercoaguable states are present. These include heparin-associated thrombocytopenia in which a heparin-dependent platelet antibody causes aggregation of ... soft tissue increasing vascular permeability and fragility resulting in the potential for bleeding disorders

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate clinical information b. The use of potassium hydroxide in preparing a specimen slide for light microscopy will be useful in identification of anaerobic bacteria c. Antibiotic sensitivity is determined by exposing the specific microorganism to varying amounts of antibiotic with the concentration of the antibiotic inhibiting growth referred to as the MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) d. Serum levels of antimicrobial agents should achieve in excess of a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate ... a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Because most surgical infections are polymicrobial, specimens should be cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, as well as fungi. Although aerobic and aerotolerant ... fold increase over MIC during the peak serum level have been demonstrated to be clinically efficacious

Rank the following laboratory tests and procedures in terms of their relative value to a 65-year-old woman who is to undergo elective resection of a sigmoid cancer. A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). C. Electrocardiogram (ECG). D. Hemoglobin concentration (Hgb). E. Serum creatinine (Cr). F. Arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO 2) on room air. G. Serum sodium concentration (Na+).

Description : Rank the following laboratory tests and procedures in terms of their relative value to a 65-year-old woman who is to undergo elective resection of a sigmoid cancer. A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). B. ... Arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO 2) on room air. G. Serum sodium concentration (Na+).

Last Answer : Answer: CDFEBAG DISCUSSION: The most important test by far is the electrocardiogram, with its capacity to indicate signs of occult heart disease. The second most important evaluation is the hemoglobin ... for resection of the colon is always normal and would be of least value among these tests

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen delivery? a. The amount of oxygen delivered to peripheral tissues is dependent upon the oxygen content in arterial blood and cardiac output b. Oxygen content is commonly measured in arterial blood c. The normal arterial-venous difference is 4 cc O2/dL d. Normal systemic oxygen delivery for a typical adult is approximately 1000 cc/min

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen delivery? a. The amount of oxygen delivered to peripheral tissues is dependent upon the oxygen content in arterial blood and cardiac ... O2/dL d. Normal systemic oxygen delivery for a typical adult is approximately 1000 cc/min

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The amount of oxygen that is delivered to peripheral tissues is the product of the oxygen content in arterial blood times the cardiac output. Normally, oxygen content of arterial blood is ... of venous blood is 16 cc/dL. Hence, the normal arterial-venous difference is 4 cc O2/dL

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the autoregulation necessary to maintain oxygen consumption and oxygen delivery? a. A change in oxygen consumption is followed by a proportionate change in oxygen delivery b. A change in oxygen delivery is followed by a change in oxygen consumption c. Increases in oxygen delivery are due solely to an increase in cardiac output d. The normal ratio of oxygen delivery to consumption is 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the autoregulation necessary to maintain oxygen consumption and oxygen delivery? a. A change in oxygen consumption is followed by a proportionate ... increase in cardiac output d. The normal ratio of oxygen delivery to consumption is 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: a The relationships between oxygen consumption and oxygen delivery represent one of the most interesting regulation systems in homeostasis. First of all, if one of the three components ... in oxygen consumption. The normal ratio of oxygen delivery to consumption is approximately 5:1

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight loss of greater than 10% over 2 to 4 months. B. Serum albumin of less than 3 gm. per 100 ml. in the hydrated state. C. Malnutrition as identified by global assessment. D. Serum transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Description : A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight ... transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of these are at least partially correct. It is not clear whether weight loss of 10% or 15% is the required threshold, but it certainly is close. Serum ... the hands of an experienced observer is quite a reasonable way of approaching and identifying patients at risk

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a adrenergic activity b. The renal and mesenteric vasoconstrictive effects of norepinephrine complicate and sometimes restrict its use c. The apparent paradoxical use of vasodilators, such as nitroprusside, in shock is indicated as a means to augment cardiac function d. Isoproterenol with its potent b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a ... b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Therapeutic adjustments of intravascular volume (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload) form the basis of the treatment strategies for all ... careful constant monitoring of arterial pressure and repeated hemodynamic measurements with a pulmonary artery catheter

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection b. In a patient with a maximal metabolic rate secondary to trauma, the presence of infection will increase the rate further c. Metabolic rate increases at a rate of approximately 10% for each increase of 1°C in central temperature d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Description : Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection ... d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Oxygen consumption is usually elevated in the infected patient. The extent of this increase is related to the severity of the infection, with peak elevations reaching 50% ... suggest that the metabolic rate increases 10% to 13% for each elevation of 1°C in central temperature

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway of the compliment cascade b. Eicosanoids, such as prostaglandins are stored in platelets and endothelial cells and released in response to inflammatory stimuli c. Thromboxane and PGI2 have similar effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway ... effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

Last Answer : Answer: d Inflammatory mediators have recently been recognized as playing a significant role in the clinical manifestations and progression of shock and the development ... increased pulmonary vascular resistance, bronchoconstriction, peripheral vasodilatation, and increased vascular permeability

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made at end inspiration, to minimize ventilatory artifacts. B. Continuous SvO 2 monitoring based on the technique of reflectance spectrophotometry has been shown to be accurate and reliable. C. Direct measurement of gastric intramucosal pH can be provided by gastrointestinal tonometry. D. Hyperlactatemia may be seen in a number of clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Description : Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made ... clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning O2 venous saturation monitoring? a. The normal saturation of mixed venous blood is 50% b. Mixed venous blood obtained for saturation monitoring can be obtained from any peripheral vein c. If arterial blood is fully saturated, the saturation of mixed venous blood is 80% d. In less than fully saturated blood, the difference between arterial and venous saturation corresponds to oxygen extraction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning O2 venous saturation monitoring? a. The normal saturation of mixed venous blood is 50% b. Mixed venous blood obtained ... than fully saturated blood, the difference between arterial and venous saturation corresponds to oxygen extraction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The relationship between oxygen delivery and oxygen consumption is reflected in the amount of oxygen in venous blood. Under normal circumstances, oxygen delivery is 1000 ... and venous saturation corresponds to the oxygen extraction, hence the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption ratio

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the vascular response to injury? a. Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury b. Vasodilatation is a detrimental response to injury with normal body processes working to avoid this process c. Vascular permeability is maintained to prevent further cellular injury d. Histamine, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) are important mediators of local vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the vascular response to injury? a. Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury b. Vasodilatation is a ... Histamine, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) are important mediators of local vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: a After wounding, there is transient vasoconstriction mediated by catecholamines, thromboxane, and prostaglandin F2 (PGF2a). This period of vasoconstriction lasts for only five to ten minutes. Once ... and mast cells and enhance the egress of cells and substrate into the wound and tissue

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages may become activated and secrete cytokines c. Macrophages serve as phagocytic cells in the tissues but not within the bloodstream d. Polymorphonucleocytes (PMNS) are normally present in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages ... in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

Last Answer : Answer: b, d A wide variety of cell types serve to provide host defense at several levels. Macrophages act as the initial antigen processing cell that serves to ... through diapedesis after chemotactic stimuli are excluded by macrophages, bacterial breakdown products, and complement activation

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Description : A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral ... use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive

A number of changes in trace mineral metabolism are noted during sepsis. Which of the following change(s) may be observed in a septic or trauma patient? a. Plasma iron levels are noted to decrease b. Plasma copper levels are noted to decrease c. Plasma serum zinc levels may decrease d. Administration of iron is appropriate

Description : A number of changes in trace mineral metabolism are noted during sepsis. Which of the following change(s) may be observed in a septic or trauma patient? a. Plasma iron levels are noted to ... are noted to decrease c. Plasma serum zinc levels may decrease d. Administration of iron is appropriate

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Changes in the balance of magnesium, inorganic phosphate, zinc, and potassium generally follow alterations in nitrogen balance. Although the iron-binding capacity of transferrin ... concentrations can be ascribed almost entirely to the levels of the ceruloplasmin produced by the liver