The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is:
A. Prescribe antibiotics
B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses
C. Gingivoplasty
D. Flap surgery

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses

Related questions

Description : he initial therapy in HIV patients is, A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses B. Root planing and surgical approach

Last Answer : A. Debridement and antimicrobial mouth rinses

Description : What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:** A. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPP B. Spontaneous bleeding interproximal C. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytes D. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis

Last Answer : C. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytes

Description : In which condition do you have to prescribe antibiotics prior to dental treatment: A. Rheumatic fever B. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis C. By pass D. Valve replacement E. Uncontrolled diabetes F. All of the above

Last Answer : F. All of the above

Description : All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except: A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute. C. ... of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease

Last Answer : B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute.

Description : A 13 years-old boy has enlarged gingivae; gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is you treatment:** A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning C. Stop medication

Last Answer : A. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplasty

Description : An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in a 50 years-old female reveals chronic inflammation; you would:** A. Inform the patient and her physician of ... . Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses and re-examination D. Repeat the biopsy

Last Answer : D. Repeat the biopsy

Description : A female patient comes to you complaining of persistent pain in a heavily restored central incisor; you suspect pulpitis and you have been told that she is in transit leaving by plane ... B. Pulp extirpation and obturate with Ledermix dressings C. Prescribe analgesics and systemic antibiotic

Last Answer : B. Pulp extirpation and obturate with Ledermix dressings

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

Description : A patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth. You “round off” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. What would be your next step: A. Keep observing B. Perform an excision biopsy C. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase

Last Answer : A. Keep observing

Description : 12 years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient? M07 ********* A. Prescribe ... mouth wash. C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling D. Refer for haematological screening

Last Answer : D. Refer for haematological screening

Description : While removing the second primary molar of a 9 years-old child, the apical ¼ of the root fractures and stays in the socket, A. You will just leave it and observe it B. You take surgically by a lingual ... try to take out by using a root apex elevator D. You use a fine-end forceps to take it out

Last Answer : A. You will just leave it and observe it

Description : cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?** ... bone, followed by endodontic treatment. E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.

Last Answer : D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.

Description : .Which of the following is true:  A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis   B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae  C. Periodontitis is the ... can be identified by x-ray  E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

Last Answer : E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

Description : After completing pulp extirpation, debridement and placing a dressing; apical periodontitis is because: A. Over instrumentation extending into periapical area B. Irritation from chemicals used C. Entrapped bacteria D. One or any combination of the above

Last Answer : D. One or any combination of the above

Description : Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from ... B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Last Answer : B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient

Description : .In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection. b. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power. c. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling.

Last Answer : a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection.

Description : In regard to periapical lesions, what is TRUE: A. Are predominantly anaerobic B. Must be treated by antibiotics C. Must always treated by surgery

Last Answer : A. Are predominantly anaerobic

Description : In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling

Last Answer : A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections

Description : Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. Agranulocytosis B. Sever uncontrolled diabetes C. Aplastic anaemia D. Mumps E. Leukaemia

Last Answer : D. Mumps

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

Description : All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. Base is wider than free margin B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum C. Base has an adequate ... defect that will be present at conclusion of operation E. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone

Last Answer : B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum

Description : In regard to apically displaced flap, what is TRUE: A. Does not preserve attached gingivae B. Does not lengthen crown of tooth C. Is a pocket elimination procedure D. A & C

Last Answer : C. Is a pocket elimination procedure

Description : All of the following are requirements of an adequate mucosal periosteal flap except:**  A. Base is wider than the free margin  B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum  C. Base containing blood supply 

Last Answer : B. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteum 

Description : The vertical incision of a mucoperiostal flap should: A. Always extend to the alveolar mucoperiostal B. Bisect the middle of gingival papillae C. Be at the right angle of the tooth

Last Answer : A. Always extend to the alveolar mucoperiostal

Description : The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is, A. Removal of enough bone B. Preoperative assessment C. The flap design D. The use of general anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Preoperative assessment

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

Description : Antimicrobial barrier?Acticoat dressings used in the treatment of burn wounds can be left in place for five days. a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days ... ) two days. antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in?Acticoat place for up to five days.

Last Answer : a) antimicrobial barrier dressings can be left in place for?Acticoat up to five days thus helping to decrease discomfort to the patient, decrease costs of dressing supplies, and decrease nursing time involved in burn dressing changes.

Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Last Answer : C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea

Description : The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic ... d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

Last Answer : Answer: a Intravenous administration of an antibiotic is clearly indicated for patients undergoing clean contaminated operations. These antibiotics should be administered prior to surgery ... of antimicrobial agents is equivalent to the administration of intravenous antimicrobial agent antibiotics

Description : The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antimicrobial action is: A. They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane B. They bind to 30S ribosomes ... peptide chain in the bacteria D. They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria

Last Answer : B. They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

Description : What is the primary consideration in providing nutrition/dietary counselling to a patient: A. Secure details of patient’s eating habits B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey C. Eliminate sugar from diet

Last Answer : B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey

Description : Patient reported to you 30 min after trauma to central incisor. Patient is 10 yrs old and there is traumatic exposure of pulp. What will be the line of treatment- 1) coronal pulpotomy and Ca-hydr. ... 3) 1-2 mm. of coronal pulp extirpated and Ca hydroxide and then permanent filling 4) Pulpectomy

Last Answer : 3) 1-2 mm. of coronal pulp extirpated and Ca hydroxide and then permanent filling

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position.

Description : Which of the following is the best evidence that a previous periodontal treatment is successful? A. The patient keeps a 3 month recall appointment B. There is no extrinsic stain C. The patient demonstrates good understanding of brushing and flossing techniques D. There is no bleeding on probing

Last Answer : D. There is no bleeding on probing

Description : A patient comes to you with medium pain of tooth filled with Composite resin as a result of cold or hot drinks, what will your initial management be, A. Remove the restorative material and ... material and place a sedative temporary material C. Place a coat of bonding material on the old composite

Last Answer : B. Remove the restorative material and place a sedative temporary material

Description : A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction. Which of the following is MOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks: A. Clotting time B. Bleeding time C. Prothrombin time D. Sedimentation rate E. Complete blood cell count

Last Answer : C. Prothrombin time

Description : A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Last Answer : C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position

Description : What is the characteristic feature of gingivitis in AIDS patient:**  A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet.   B. Correlating with other pathogenesic lesions of AIDS and does not resolve to periodontal  conventional treatment.  C. Sever pain 

Last Answer : A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet.  

Description : The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically ... the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

Last Answer : A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment

Description : The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically ... . The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

Last Answer : A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment

Description : Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually ... of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine

Last Answer : D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead

Description : What indicates for a periapical surgery: A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal filling may lead to fracture of the root B. When root canal treatment is faulty C. When ... bony defect is so extensive that the edges of the incisors will collapse E. None of the above

Last Answer : A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal filling may lead to fracture of the root

Description : The prognosis of teeth with apical resorption is : A. Poor B. Good if apex can be sealed C. Dependant upon periapical surgery D. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal

Last Answer : B. Good if apex can be sealed

Description : Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of, A. Resection B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations. C. Irradiation D. Excision and removal of adjacent teeth E. None of the above

Last Answer : B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).