In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling

In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics:
A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections
B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power
C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections
by

Related questions

.In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection. b. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power. c. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling.

Description : .In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection. b. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power. c. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling.

Last Answer : a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection.

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve. c- Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling. d- Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root. e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve ADC M07 C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

Description : Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

Last Answer : B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast

In regard to third molar surgery: A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory

Description : In regard to third molar surgery: A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory

Last Answer : A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours

Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. Prothrombin value (INR) of 3 is enough to perform extraction C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

Description : Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. ... takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

Last Answer : C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects

What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Description : What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed ... Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Last Answer : B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam

In regard to periapical lesions, what is TRUE: A. Are predominantly anaerobic B. Must be treated by antibiotics C. Must always treated by surgery

Description : In regard to periapical lesions, what is TRUE: A. Are predominantly anaerobic B. Must be treated by antibiotics C. Must always treated by surgery

Last Answer : A. Are predominantly anaerobic

Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. Agranulocytosis B. Sever uncontrolled diabetes C. Aplastic anaemia D. Mumps E. Leukaemia

Description : Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. Agranulocytosis B. Sever uncontrolled diabetes C. Aplastic anaemia D. Mumps E. Leukaemia

Last Answer : D. Mumps

12 years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient? M07 ********* A. Prescribe Metronidazole 100mg B. Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth wash. C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling D. Refer for haematological screening

Description : 12 years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient? M07 ********* A. Prescribe ... mouth wash. C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling D. Refer for haematological screening

Last Answer : D. Refer for haematological screening

An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

.Which of the following is true: A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae C. Periodontitis is the primary cause of teeth lost after the age of 35. D. All periodontal pockets can be identified by x-ray E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

Description : .Which of the following is true:  A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis   B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae  C. Periodontitis is the ... can be identified by x-ray  E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

Last Answer : E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity

What is TRUE in regard to Basal Cell Carcinoma A. Metastasis is common B. Erodes bone C. More common in oriental races D. Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition

Description : What is TRUE in regard to Basal Cell Carcinoma A. Metastasis is common B. Erodes bone C. More common in oriental races D. Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition

Last Answer : D. Cannot occur in oral mucosa according to definition

What is TRUE in regard to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. Never accompanied with skin lesions B. Always accompanied with skin lesions C. Lesions may present anywhere D. Lesions may present on legs E. Lesions may present on arms

Description : What is TRUE in regard to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. Never accompanied with skin lesions B. Always accompanied with skin lesions C. Lesions may present anywhere D. Lesions may present on legs E. Lesions may present on arms

Last Answer : D. Lesions may present on legs E. Lesions may present on arms

The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure B. Extra oral swelling C. Intermittent pain

Description : The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure B. Extra oral swelling C. Intermittent pain

Last Answer : A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure

What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively T C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T

Description : What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic ... to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T

Last Answer : C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure

In regard to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Iron deficiency is a feature B. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosa C. Dysphagia and angular cheilitis D. Predisposing oral cancer E. All of the above

Description : In regard to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Iron deficiency is a feature B. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosa C. Dysphagia and angular cheilitis D. Predisposing oral cancer E. All of the above

Last Answer : E. All of the above

A 50 years-old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he ”bled all night”. Which of the following pre. existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: a. Blood pressure reading of 140/80 b. Gastric ulcer. c. Elevated prothrombin time. d. None of the above.

Description : A 50 years-old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he bled all night . Which of the following pre. existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: a. Blood ... 140/80 b. Gastric ulcer. c. Elevated prothrombin time. d. None of the above.

Last Answer : c. Elevated prothrombin time.

A 50 years old man presents after a full mouth extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110 B. Gastric ulcer C. Elevated prothrombin time D. A & C are correct E. None of the above

Description : A 50 years old man presents after a full mouth extraction complaining that he bled all night . Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: A. Blood ... ulcer C. Elevated prothrombin time D. A & C are correct E. None of the above

Last Answer : D. A & C are correct

If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most uncommon result is:** A. Blister formation B. Post operative pain C. Secondary caries D. Lower compressive strength

Description : If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most uncommon result is:** A. Blister formation B. Post operative pain C. Secondary caries D. Lower compressive strength

Last Answer : C. Secondary caries

A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Description : A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. ... network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Last Answer : A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption

Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life

What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin: A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin: A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. Prescribe antibiotics B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses C. Gingivoplasty D. Flap surgery

Description : The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. Prescribe antibiotics B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses C. Gingivoplasty D. Flap surgery

Last Answer : B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses

Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been shown to reduce nosocomial pneumonias and to improve mortality rates. B. Enteral nutrition, as compared with parenteral nutrition, preserves the villus architecture of the gut. C. Gut dysfunction may be an effect of shock, but it may also contribute to the development of MODS by the mechanism of bacterial translocation. D. As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Description : Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been ... As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: The gut has a vital role in the pathophysiology of shock. The splanchnic circulation is very vulnerable to the circulatory redistribution that occurs in shock, thus, gut ... , enteral feeding is more cost effective and is associated with a lower rate of septic morbidity

If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually resistant species, penicillin is not indicated c. Immediate operative intervention and aggressive resection of all involved tissues is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Description : If a necrotizing soft tissue infection is considered, therapy mandates: a. Empiric administration of antibiotics active against gram-positive, gram-negative, and anaerobic bacteria b. Due to usually ... is mandatory d. The use of hyperbaric oxygen has been demonstrated to be clearly advantageous

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Identification of a necrotizing, soft tissue infection mandates immediate operative intervention with aggressive resection of all involved tissues and empiric ... remains without controlled trials demonstrating any additional benefits derived from hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated before oral surgery in patients with: A. Herpes simplex B. Whooping cough C. Bacterial endocarditis

Description : Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated before oral surgery in patients with: A. Herpes simplex B. Whooping cough C. Bacterial endocarditis

Last Answer : C. Bacterial endocarditis

Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Description : Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Last Answer : C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea

The fovea palatini is a landmark to determine the posterior bonds of upper denture in which regard: A. Post dam B. Flanges

Description : The fovea palatini is a landmark to determine the posterior bonds of upper denture in which regard: A. Post dam B. Flanges

Last Answer : A. Post dam

What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on children’s oral health? A. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30% B. Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene D. Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation

Description : What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on children's oral health? A. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30% B. Provide a long term improvement in ... term improvement in oral hygiene D. Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation

Last Answer : C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical C. It is rapidly inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Description : Metronidazole is selectively active against anaerobic organisms because: A. Aerobes have an active transport mechanism to pump it out of their cell B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive ... inactivated in the presence of oxygen D. It binds to DNA of anaerobes with high affinity

Last Answer : B. Only anaerobes reduce it to generate the reactive nitro radical

A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the die; but in the mouth the casting is open approximately 0.3mm. A satisfactory fit and accurate physiological close of the gingival area of the crown can BEST be achieved by: A. Hand burnishing B. Mechanical burnishing C. Using finishing burs and points to remove the enamel margins on the tooth D. Making a new impression and remaking the crown E. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to allow for further

Description : A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the die; but in the mouth the casting is open approximately 0.3mm. A satisfactory fit and accurate physiological close of the gingival area of the crown ... the crown E. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to allow for further

Last Answer : D. Making a new impression and remaking the crown

The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aesthetics with porcelain fused to metal crown is, A. 1mm B. The full thickness of enamel C. 1.5 mm D. 2.5mm E. One third of the dentine thickness

Description : The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aesthetics with porcelain fused to metal crown is, A. 1mm B. The full thickness of enamel C. 1.5 mm D. 2.5mm E. One third of the dentine thickness

Last Answer : C. 1.5 mm

In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: a. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally. b. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis . c. The 5 year survival rate is 20%. d. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin. e. Commonly occurs intra orally.

Description : In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: a. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally. b. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis ... incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin. e. Commonly occurs intra orally.

Last Answer : c. The 5 year survival rate is 20%.

In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis C. The 5 years survival rate is 20% D. The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

Description : In the case of malignant melanoma occurring intra orally, which of the following is true: A. Uncommon on the palate when occurs intra orally B. Should not biopsied, as this will increase metasis ... The incidence of oral melanoma is the same as those on the skin E. Commonly occurs intra orally

Last Answer : C. The 5 years survival rate is 20%

As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics ... and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic ... diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

In regard to Universal currete what is true? a- You can use both ends equally. b- You can use one end only. c- Angle of shank and blade is 70 degrees. d- You can use it for specific area. e- It has very rigid handle.

Description : In regard to Universal currete what is true? a- You can use both ends equally. b- You can use one end only. c- Angle of shank and blade is 70 degrees. d- You can use it for specific area. e- It has very rigid handle.

Last Answer : a- You can use both ends equally.

Which of the following is true in regard to smoking, A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic bacteria C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection

Description : Which of the following is true in regard to smoking, A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic bacteria C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection

Last Answer : A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised

What is TRUE in regard to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. Use an inverted cone bur B. Use a flat fissure bur C. Parallel to occlusal plane D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth E. None of the above

Description : What is TRUE in regard to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. Use an inverted cone bur B. Use a flat fissure bur C. Parallel to occlusal plane D. At right angle to the long axis of tooth E. None of the above

Last Answer : E. None of the above

In regard to apically displaced flap, what is TRUE: A. Does not preserve attached gingivae B. Does not lengthen crown of tooth C. Is a pocket elimination procedure D. A & C

Description : In regard to apically displaced flap, what is TRUE: A. Does not preserve attached gingivae B. Does not lengthen crown of tooth C. Is a pocket elimination procedure D. A & C

Last Answer : C. Is a pocket elimination procedure

What is true in regard to lateral mandibular incisors A. 20% have 2 canals with one foramen B. 20% have 2 canals with two foramina C. 40% have two canals with 10% ending in two foramina D. 40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina

Description : What is true in regard to lateral mandibular incisors A. 20% have 2 canals with one foramen B. 20% have 2 canals with two foramina C. 40% have two canals with 10% ending in two foramina D. 40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina

Last Answer : D. 40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina

Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regard to lateral periodontal cyst** A. It is more common in anterior region B. It occurs more in maxilla than mandible C. Probable origin is from dentigerous cyst which develops laterally D. Encountered in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible, derived from the remnants of the dental lamina

Description : Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regard to lateral periodontal cyst** A. It is more common in anterior region B. It occurs more in maxilla than mandible C. Probable origin is from ... . Encountered in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible, derived from the remnants of the dental lamina

Last Answer : A. It is more common in anterior region B. It occurs more in maxilla than mandible

Which of the following is true in regard to periapical cementoma: A. Teeth are vital. B. Teeth are not vital

Description : Which of the following is true in regard to periapical cementoma: A. Teeth are vital. B. Teeth are not vital

Last Answer : A. Teeth are vital.

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Description : Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from ... B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Last Answer : B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient

A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: a. Pleomorphic adenoma. b. Carcinoma of the parotid. c. Lymphoma of parotid.

Description : A patient comes with a firm, painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. This is most likely to be: a. Pleomorphic adenoma. b. Carcinoma of the parotid. c. Lymphoma of parotid.

Last Answer : a. Pleomorphic adenoma.