How do I speak to someone who no longer functions the way they used to?

How do I speak to someone who no longer functions the way they used to?
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Answer :

answer:Find out if there is some way she can communicate that is non verbal. She may feel too weak to “talk” too much if she’s in that bad of shape. If you can communicate enough to find out what kind of books she likes, maybe she’d enjoy being read to. I think it’s great you want to visit. I hope someone does that for me if I’m in the same shape.
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Related questions

Which of the following terms best describes a living will? a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences. b) Proxy directive A proxy directive is the appointment and authorization of another individual to make medical decisions on behalf of the person who created an advance directive when he/she is no loner able to speak for him/herself.

Description : Which of the following terms best describes a living will? a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences. b) ... to make health care decisions on his/her behalf when he/she is unable to do so.

Last Answer : a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences.

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Description : When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge ... Cardiac output is determined through thermodilution involving injection of fluid into the pulmonary artery catheter.

Last Answer : a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits. b) Refractory The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.

When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Description : When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the ... or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Last Answer : a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Description : What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the ... oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located.

Last Answer : a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen ... literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Can you give me any tips on picking up someone from the hospital?

Description : Can you give me any tips on picking up someone from the hospital?

Last Answer : Just thinking that maybe a blanket and pillow in the car would be good in case she has the shakes.

Is it wrong to not want someone taking care of a family member because of the contents on their Facebook?

Description : Is it wrong to not want someone taking care of a family member because of the contents on their Facebook?

Last Answer : um…I probably wouldn’t want her taking care of my sister either

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) Isometric contraction Isometric contraction is characterized by increased muscle tension, unchanged muscle length, and no joint motion. c) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle, joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) ... , joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Description : Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral ... muscular atrophy. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Last Answer : a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to ... B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for nvCJD.

Last Answer : a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Upper motor neuron lesions cause a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

Description : Upper motor neuron lesions cause a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control. b) decreased muscle tone. Lower motor ... paralysis. d) absent or decreased reflexes. Lower motor neuron lesions cause absent or decreased reflexes.

Last Answer : a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b) 2” Insertion of the catheter 2 inches is inadequate. c) 4” Insertion of the catheter 4 inches is excessive and not recommended. d) 5” Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Description : When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3 The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b ... and not recommended. d) 5 Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Last Answer : a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches.

Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Description : Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the ... term home IV therapy (eg, Port A Cath, Mediport, Hickman Port, P.A.S. Port).

Last Answer : a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

Description : Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of ... crater-like. A typical lesion in oral cancer is a painless hardened ulcer with raised edges.

Last Answer : a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. c) sluggish. Sluggish is not a term a nurse would use to accurately describe bowel sounds. d) absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Description : When bowel sounds are heard about every 15 seconds, the nurse would record that the bowel sounds are a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds. b) hypoactive. Hypoactive bowel sounds ... absent. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3-5 minutes.

Last Answer : a) normal. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5-20 seconds.

Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient’s level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Description : Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient's level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with ... in support groups. Participation in support groups indicates some degree of comfort with prognosis.

Last Answer : a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift. b) Lobectomy With lobectomy, two chest tubes are usually inserted for drainage, the upper for air and the lower for fluid c) Wedge resection With wedge resection, the pleural cavity usually is drained because of the possibility of an air or blood leak d) Segmentectomy With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Description : In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty ... With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Last Answer : a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift.

When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled. b) clean. Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection. c) contaminated. Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection. d) dirty. A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Description : During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and ... of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

Last Answer : a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize.

Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result in no change in respiratory rate. c) Stimulation, only Delta opioids result in stimulation of respiratory rate. d) Depression, only Neither mu, nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Description : Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result ... nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Last Answer : a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, “How old is the client?” Holding the fallopian tube, the surgeon asks for a hemostat. The scrub nurse sensing that the surgeon is about to ligate the tube said, “Doctor there is no signed consent for tubal ligation.” The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Description : 79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, How old is the client? Holding the fallopian ... there is no signed consent for tubal ligation. The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Advocacy

Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the following will the nurse expect? A. No risk of aspiration during swallowing; speech is lost B. Normal speaking, breathing and swallowing are restored C. Unable to communicate with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Description : Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the ... with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

If the motherboard no longer functions is there a way to retrieve the data?

Description : If the motherboard no longer functions is there a way to retrieve the data?

Last Answer : answer:Data is stored on the hard drive. The data should still be there. You can buy a cheap external enclosure to put your old hard drive into that will work on a new computer. Or just replace ... hard drive. My mom does this and causes constant confusion. The hard drive could fit in your pocket.

What's the best way to go about becoming a CNA?

Description : What's the best way to go about becoming a CNA?

Last Answer : My mom is a nurse for an NHC nursing home. National Health Care. She says her company has free CNA classes because they have such a demand for them. Then they will place you in one of ... homes. I would try contacting nursing homes, hospitals, and home health services to see if they offer classes.

82. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponge is

Description : 82. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponge is

Last Answer : D. Scrub nurse and circulating nurse count singly, audibly and concurrently

80. An officer-in-charge signs a document for the chief nurse who went on leave. The OIC signs her full name over the name of the chief nurse. The proper way to sign for the chief nurse who is on leave is

Description : 80. An officer-in-charge signs a document for the chief nurse who went on leave. The OIC signs her full name over the name of the chief nurse. The proper way to sign for the chief nurse who is on leave is

Last Answer : D. Sign on a separate line as OIC

The most controversial way of communicating doctor’s orders is by phone. It becomes valid and legal only when A. Countersigned by the receiving RN B. Signed by the physician who gave the order C. Signed by the resident physician on duty D. Countersigned by the medical doctor

Description : The most controversial way of communicating doctor’s orders is by phone. It becomes valid and legal only when A. Countersigned by the receiving RN B. Signed by the physician who gave the order C. Signed by the resident physician on duty D. Countersigned by the medical doctor

Last Answer : B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings/pain or discomfort openly

Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

Description : Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse ... avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).

Last Answer : a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

Description : When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) ... of wound edges is delayed and integumentary continuity is restored by bringing apposing granulations together.

Last Answer : a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs? a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs. b) Physical examination The physical examination is helpful but often only validates the information obtained from the history. c) Diagnostic test results Diagnostic test results can be helpful, but they often only verify rather than establish the diagnosis. d) Biographical data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Description : Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person's needs? a) History of ... data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Last Answer : a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.

47. Which of the following designs would be most appropriate to use in attempting to determine the participants’ early ambulation after they will be given preoperative teachings?

Description : 47. Which of the following designs would be most appropriate to use in attempting to determine the participants’ early ambulation after they will be given preoperative teachings?

Last Answer : A. Time series design