82. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponge is

82. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponge is
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Scrub nurse and circulating nurse count singly,
audibly and concurrently
by

Related questions

85. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?

Description : 85. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?

Last Answer : D. Informs the surgeon that sponge count has not been completed

81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Description : 81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Last Answer : A. All except 5

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

84. The circulating nurse will document “surgical count” in which of the following?

Description : 84. The circulating nurse will document “surgical count” in which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Intraoperative record

Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Description : Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Last Answer : A. 1, 2, and 3

99. The companion asks why the client was advised to avoid iron supplements or vitamins. The correct response of the nurse would be

Description : 99. The companion asks why the client was advised to avoid iron supplements or vitamins. The correct response of the nurse would be

Last Answer : A. “These supplements enhance the production of RBC.”

72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding

53. Albert’s mother asks why the client’s breathing is shallow. The correct response of the nurse would be

Description : 53. Albert’s mother asks why the client’s breathing is shallow. The correct response of the nurse would be

Last Answer : D. “Respiratory movement intensifies pericardial pain.

80. An officer-in-charge signs a document for the chief nurse who went on leave. The OIC signs her full name over the name of the chief nurse. The proper way to sign for the chief nurse who is on leave is

Description : 80. An officer-in-charge signs a document for the chief nurse who went on leave. The OIC signs her full name over the name of the chief nurse. The proper way to sign for the chief nurse who is on leave is

Last Answer : D. Sign on a separate line as OIC

What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Description : What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Last Answer : Your question presumes that 21st cenury standards were applied in the 19th century. There was no certification of nurses until late in the 19th century. Florence Nightingale, the mother of Nursing didn; ... in 1890 was vastlly different from nursing in 1810. But both were in the 19th century.

If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Description : If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Last Answer : Compassion and a cheerful and drama free personality. They care, and they’re patient, no matter how difficult their day is, you will never know it. A great nurse knows to quit if they burn out and start hating their job.

What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Description : What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Last Answer : Drawing blood without digging a hole in the patient’s arm.

Any words of advice for a new grad nurse?

Description : Any words of advice for a new grad nurse?

Last Answer : answer:My daughter is a nurse. She was given bad advise on the first job she landed. It was at the Tennessee State Prison!! This is the worst possible place for a nurse, especially a new nurse, to begin her ... she moved to Seattle. This was not a safe job for her or for you. Keep this in mind. jp

Should I change surgeons if I have a problem with his nurse?

Description : Should I change surgeons if I have a problem with his nurse?

Last Answer : I don't believe you to be over-reacting. Talk with your surgeon. You need to be as relaxed and comfortable going in as you can. This is outrageous. Please, please don't go under the knife ... There is nothing wrong with your thinking. PM me if you'd like. I have recent experience with surgery.

I removed my own IV and a hospital nurse went bonkers. Is it so dangerous?

Description : I removed my own IV and a hospital nurse went bonkers. Is it so dangerous?

Last Answer : I agree with you. When I’m put in the hospital, I get IVs a lot. I’ve taken them out on my own plenty of times..and never hurt myself. I think they freak it because you hurting yourself or doing that can get them in trouble, fired, or even sued.

Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Description : Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Last Answer : The Dept of Labor produces a document called the Occupational Outlook Handbook that compares projections of salaries, the types of training required, anticipated markets for various services etc. Check out: http://www.bls.gov/OCO/

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

Description : Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse ... avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).

Last Answer : a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

Description : When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field ... . d) urgent care. Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.

Last Answer : a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described ... of tissue due to insufficient blood supply and may be associated with steroid use.

Last Answer : a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Description : The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression ... contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.

Last Answer : a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

Description : The nurse teaching the patient with a cast about home care includes which of the following instructions? a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin ... A broken cast should be reported to the physician; the patient should not attempt to fix it.

Last Answer : a) Dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems. Instruct the patient to keep the cast dry and to dry a wet fiberglass cast thoroughly using a hair dryer on a cool setting to avoid skin problems; do not cover it with plastic or rubber.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Description : The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to ... output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or return to the ED if the patient a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Description : Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or ... for short periods of time. Difficulty in waking the patient should be reported or treated immediately.

Last Answer : a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's ... rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

Last Answer : a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Description : What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the ... oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located.

Last Answer : a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen ... literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Description : Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to ... . Such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Last Answer : a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.