77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only. Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP
(transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain.
When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial
that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only.
Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the
client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The
action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical
principles?
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Justice
by

Related questions

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

69. When Marina checked the capillary blood glucose of the client at 6 PM before meals as instructed by the senior nurse, the result showed 65 mg/dl. Which of the following will Marina do first?

Description : 69. When Marina checked the capillary blood glucose of the client at 6 PM before meals as instructed by the senior nurse, the result showed 65 mg/dl. Which of the following will Marina do first?

Last Answer : C. Check the physician’s order in case CBG is below 70 mg/dl

42. The nurse is to inject Vitamin B intramuscularly to another elderly client. Before injecting, the nurse explained that the client may feel some discomfort. This is an example of

Description : 42. The nurse is to inject Vitamin B intramuscularly to another elderly client. Before injecting, the nurse explained that the client may feel some discomfort. This is an example of

Last Answer : C. Anticipatory response

78. Nurse Nora is assigned on PM shift for the month of June. She requested the head nurse if she can be on night or morning instead to be able to tutor her 2 sons in the elementary. The head nurse emphasized that it is her turn to go on PM duty. The action of the head nurse exemplifies which of the following?

Description : 78. Nurse Nora is assigned on PM shift for the month of June. She requested the head nurse if she can be on night or morning instead to be able to tutor her 2 sons in the elementary. The head ... it is her turn to go on PM duty. The action of the head nurse exemplifies which of the following?

Last Answer : A. Authority

The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, “I will A. Call you when the return flow is clear” B. Stop the enema only if the return flow is without formed fecal material” C. Need 1 liter of tap water to have clear return flow” D. Put the client in left Sim’s position to achieve the desired return flow.”

Description : The nurse instructs the nursing attendant to perform cleansing enema until the return flow is clear. The nursing attendant understood the instruction when she says, I will A. Call you when the return flow is ... flow D. Put the client in left Sim's position to achieve the desired return flow.

Last Answer : A. Call you when the return flow is clear”

The Code of Ethics states that the nurse’s primary commitment is to the client whether an individual of family, group or community. Which nursing activity would best demonstrate the ethical principle called justice? A. The nurse providing care on a “first come – first served” basis B. Referring the client for evaluation to the social worker on duty regarding her socio-economic status C. The client’s preference is least considered D. The nurse’s providing care to maximize health according to available resources

Description : The Code of Ethics states that the nurse's primary commitment is to the client whether an individual of family, group or community. Which nursing activity would best demonstrate the ethical ... is least considered D. The nurse's providing care to maximize health according to available resources

Last Answer : A. The nurse providing care on a “first come – first served” basis

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

Description : The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the ... Complaints of the knee locking are associated with functioning of the injured knee prior to arthroscopy.

Last Answer : a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift. b) Lobectomy With lobectomy, two chest tubes are usually inserted for drainage, the upper for air and the lower for fluid c) Wedge resection With wedge resection, the pleural cavity usually is drained because of the possibility of an air or blood leak d) Segmentectomy With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Description : In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty ... With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Last Answer : a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift.

51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

Description : 51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

Last Answer : C. Sit the client upright and lean forward

41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Description : 41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Acetaminophen

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to Fowler’s B. Reassure the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Description : In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to ... the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Last Answer : Which of the following expected outcomes for the patient is most relevant for the nursing diagnosis “At risk for imbalanced nutrition related to impaired swallowing”? A. Appropriate body weight maintained B. Fear of choking relieved C. Oral intake increased D. Swallowing of soft foods facilitated

Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, “Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies”. Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. Clarify information on purpose, anticipate benefits and consequences of total laryngectomy B. Explain that total laryngectomy results in loss of ability to verbally communicate C. Arrange a visit to a post-laryngectomy client who effectively uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Description : Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies . Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. ... uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Last Answer : D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

88. When the nurse ensures that the client has plan for continuous care after leaving the health care facility and assists from the transition from one environment to another, she is doing a

Description : 88. When the nurse ensures that the client has plan for continuous care after leaving the health care facility and assists from the transition from one environment to another, she is doing a

Last Answer : A. Discharge plan

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Description : 38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Last Answer : C. Explore the possible reason why the client refuses the prescribed medication

When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and immediate action? A. Stop the intern and do the catheterization yourself B. Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Description : When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and ... . Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Last Answer : B. Offer to change the catheter

To reduce the risk of side effects of local anaesthetic injections; you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. Aspirate before injection B. Use the smallest effective volume C. Use the weakest efficient percentage strength D. Inject rapidly

Description : To reduce the risk of side effects of local anaesthetic injections; you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. Aspirate before injection B. Use the smallest effective volume C. Use the weakest efficient percentage strength D. Inject rapidly

Last Answer : D. Inject rapidly

75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Description : 75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Last Answer : A. 3, 4, 5, and 6

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Description : Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Last Answer : A. 1, 2, and 3

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the left shoulder C. Tenderness and rigidity at the left epigastric area radiating to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Description : Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the ... to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Last Answer : D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master’s program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John’s hospital and was accepted. Since her assumption to office, she has been signing documents as master’s graduate affixing “RN, MAN” to her name. the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

Description : Mrs. C. Serdenio is currently enrolled in the master's program at the State University and is currently writing her thesis. She applied as a chief nurse in St. John's hospital and ... . the action of the chief nurse constitutes A. Misrepresentation B. Malpractice C. Personification D. Misdemeanor

Last Answer : A. Misrepresentation

Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. b) Observation of gastric aspirate Gastric fluid may be grassy green, brown, clear, or odorless while an aspirate from the lungs may be off-white or tan. Hence, checking aspirate is not the best method of determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Description : Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. ... for air bubbles is not a reliable method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable.

n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate the importance of respiratory exercises B. Give the client reassurance that can he can cough, breathe deeply and turn to sides safely C. Administer the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Description : n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate ... the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Last Answer : D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty to do good? a) Beneficence Beneficence is the duty to do good and the active promotion of benevolent acts. b) Fidelity Fidelity refers to the duty to be faithful to one’s commitments. c) Veracity Veracity is the obligation to tell the truth. d) Nonmaleficence Nonmaleficence is the duty not to inflict, as well as to prevent and remove, harm; it is more binding than beneficence.

Description : Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty to do good? a) Beneficence Beneficence is the duty to do good and the active promotion of benevolent acts. b) Fidelity Fidelity refers to the ... not to inflict, as well as to prevent and remove, harm; it is more binding than beneficence.

Last Answer : a) Beneficence Beneficence is the duty to do good and the active promotion of benevolent acts.

When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

Description : When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a ... the external vulva and vaginal walls. d) chlamydia. Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

Last Answer : a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

99. The companion asks why the client was advised to avoid iron supplements or vitamins. The correct response of the nurse would be

Description : 99. The companion asks why the client was advised to avoid iron supplements or vitamins. The correct response of the nurse would be

Last Answer : A. “These supplements enhance the production of RBC.”

79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, “How old is the client?” Holding the fallopian tube, the surgeon asks for a hemostat. The scrub nurse sensing that the surgeon is about to ligate the tube said, “Doctor there is no signed consent for tubal ligation.” The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Description : 79. A scrub nurse is assisting an emergency Cesarian section on a 39-year-old laundry woman. Before closing the peritoneum, the surgeon asks, How old is the client? Holding the fallopian ... there is no signed consent for tubal ligation. The nurse just demonstrated which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Advocacy

76. A client is being positioned for radical vulvectomy and a couple of clinical clerks wanted to come in to watch the surgery. The circulating nurse advise them to enter the OR suite later. Foremost, this decision of the nurse is directed towards

Description : 76. A client is being positioned for radical vulvectomy and a couple of clinical clerks wanted to come in to watch the surgery. The circulating nurse advise them to enter the OR suite later. Foremost, this decision of the nurse is directed towards

Last Answer : D. Preserving privacy

72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding

64. The client was placed on a low sodium diet. The wife asks the nurse which foods to include in the client’s diet while at home. The nurse should instruct to include which of these?

Description : 64. The client was placed on a low sodium diet. The wife asks the nurse which foods to include in the client’s diet while at home. The nurse should instruct to include which of these?

Last Answer : C. Fruits and vegetables

62. A 30-year-old client had cholesterol blood test before admission to the hospital. The nurse in charge would teach the family and significant others that the client should exercise to help keep the total cholesterol to a desired level of

Description : 62. A 30-year-old client had cholesterol blood test before admission to the hospital. The nurse in charge would teach the family and significant others that the client should exercise to help keep the total cholesterol to a desired level of

Last Answer : A. 140 mg/dl

61. A client with gout asks the nurse what food must be avoided so that the family can provide support. Which food has the highest in purine content and must be excluded from the dietary plan?

Description : 61. A client with gout asks the nurse what food must be avoided so that the family can provide support. Which food has the highest in purine content and must be excluded from the dietary plan?

Last Answer : D. Liver

57. The client was prescribed Ocreotide acetate (Sandostatin). Nurse Carla would monitor for which of the following side effects?

Description : 57. The client was prescribed Ocreotide acetate (Sandostatin). Nurse Carla would monitor for which of the following side effects?

Last Answer : A. Abdominal pain

55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Description : 55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Last Answer : B. “Have you ever vomited blood or noticed very black stools?”

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 – 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare the client for which specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Description : To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 - 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare ... specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography

A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Description : A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Last Answer : A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Description : What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s ... 80% of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now experiencing post-polio syndrome.

Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.