A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post
acute MI induces angioneogenesis?
a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization
TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in
ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the
channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to
months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory
process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of
the inflammatory process.
b) Bracytherapy
Brachytherapy involves the delivery of gamma or beta radiation by
placing a radioisotope close to the lesion and has been shown to be
effective in reducing the recurrence of obstruction, preventing vessell
restenosis by inhibiting smooth muscle cell proliferation.
c) Atherectomy
Atherectomy is an invasive interventional procedure that involves the
removal of the atheroma, or plaque, from a coronary artery.
d) Stent placement
A stent is a woven stainless steel mesh that provides structural
support to a vessel at risk of acute closure. Eventually, endothelium
covers the stent and it is incorporated into the vessel wall. Because of
the risk of thrombus formation in the stent, the patient receives
antiplatelet medications (e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks
and lifetime use of aspirin).
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization
TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in
ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the
channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to
months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory
process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of
the inflammatory process.
by

Related questions

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when(a) AV node receives signal from SA node (b) AV valves open up (c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.

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Last Answer : (d) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound healing b. Macrophages are not essential for wound healing c. The macrophage role in wound healing is limited to phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound ... phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

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Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency. b) Aneurysm An aneurysm is a localized sac of an artery wall formed at a weak point in the vessel. c) Bruit A bruit is the sound produced by turbulent blood flow through an irregular, tortuous, stenotic, or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent ... or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

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When the method of wound healing is one in which wound edges are not surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored by granulations, the wound healing is termed a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention. b) primary intention healing. Primary or first intention healing is the method of healing in which wound edges are surgically approximated and integumentary continuity is restored without granulating.

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Last Answer : a) second intention healing. When wounds dehisce, they will be allowed to heal by secondary intention.

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

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Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

In contrast to adult wound healing with scar formation, which of the following are characteristic of scarless fetal skin repair? A. Matrix rich in hyaluronic acid. B. Increased inflammatory response. C. Increased production of TGF-b. D. No collagen deposition. E. Minimal angiogenesis.

Description : In contrast to adult wound healing with scar formation, which of the following are characteristic of scarless fetal skin repair? A. Matrix rich in hyaluronic acid. B. Increased inflammatory response. C. Increased production of TGF-b. D. No collagen deposition. E. Minimal angiogenesis.

Last Answer : Answer: AE DISCUSSION: The ability of a fetus to heal without scar formation depends on its gestational age at the time of injury and the size of the wound defect. In ... repair has possible clinical applications in the modulation of adult fibrotic diseases and abnormal scar-forming conditions

Which of the following newer pharmacological therapies used for the treatment of osteoarthritis is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation as well as have some antiinflammatory effects? a) Viscosupplementation Viscosupplementation, the intraarticular injection of hyaluronic acid, is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation. It may also have some anti-inflammatory effects.

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Last Answer : a) Viscosupplementation Viscosupplementation, the intraarticular injection of hyaluronic acid, is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation. It may also have some anti-inflammatory effects.

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary? a) Vasopressin Vasopressin causes contraction of smooth muscle, particularly blood vessels.

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Last Answer : a) Vasopressin Vasopressin causes contraction of smooth muscle, particularly blood vessels.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with acute symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes which of the following? a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. ... -Hallpike procedure. The Dix-Hallpike test is an assessment test used to evaluate for BPPV.

Last Answer : a) Bed rest Bed rest is recommended for patients with acute symptoms. Canalith repositioning procedures (CRP) may be used to provide resolution of vertigo, and patients with acute vertigo may be medicated with meclizine for 1-2 weeks.

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Description : A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well- ... malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Last Answer : a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

The hormonal alterations that follow operation and injury favor accelerated gluconeogenesis. This new glucose is consumed by which of the following tissues? A. Central nervous system. B. Skeletal muscle. C. Bone. D. Kidney. E. Tissue in the healing wound.

Description : The hormonal alterations that follow operation and injury favor accelerated gluconeogenesis. This new glucose is consumed by which of the following tissues? A. Central nervous system. B. Skeletal muscle. C. Bone. D. Kidney. E. Tissue in the healing wound.

Last Answer : Answer: ADE DISCUSSION: Glucose is produced in increased amounts to satisfy the fuel requirements of the healing wound. In addition, nerve tissue and the renal medulla also utilize this substrate. Skeletal muscle primarily utilizes fatty acids, and bone utilizes mineral substrate

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart. b) Left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. c) Left ventricle The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Description : Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return ... d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Last Answer : a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart.

A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

Description : A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, ( ... surgery. Posttraumatic seizures occurring more than 7 days following surgery are classified as late seizures.

Last Answer : a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only. Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Description : 77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a ... next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Last Answer : A. Justice

How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? (a) It releases wound hormones. (b) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock. (c) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance. (d) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

Description : How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? (a) It releases wound hormones. (b) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock. (c) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance. (d) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

Last Answer : (c) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance.

Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Description : Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and ... very typical for patients to have endured their symptoms for a long period of time.

Last Answer : a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Which of the following statements reflect current stem cell research? a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body’s entire supply of both red and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect current stem cell research? a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of ... an autoimmune component including systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, and multiple sclerosis.

Last Answer : a) The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes the body's entire supply of both red and white cells. The stem cell is known as a precursor cell that continually replenishes ... and white cells. Stem cells comprise only a small portion of all types of bone marrow cells.

An acute wound could be due to a. Surgical Procedures. b. Cuts. c. Lacerations. d. All The Above (A—C) Are Correct.

Description : An acute wound could be due to a. Surgical Procedures. b. Cuts. c. Lacerations. d. All The Above (A—C) Are Correct.

Last Answer : d. All The Above (A—C) Are Correct.

The herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. b) 0-3 months. The time period 0-3 months exceeds the incubation period. c) 20-30 days. The time period 20-30 days exceeds the incubation period. d) 3-6 months. The time period 3-6 months exceeds the incubation period.

Description : The herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. b) ... the incubation period. d) 3-6 months. The time period 3-6 months exceeds the incubation period.

Last Answer : a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions.

Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration. b) 10-15 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 10–15 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated. c) 30-35 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 30–35 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is overinflated. d) 0-5 mm Hg water pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Description : Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the ... pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Last Answer : a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration.

Of the following bariatric surgical procedures, which is the best procedure for long-term weight loss? a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure for longterm weight loss. In this procedure, a horizontal row of staples creates a stomach pouch with a 1-cm stoma that is anastomosed with a portion of distal jejunum, creating a gastroenterostomy.

Description : Of the following bariatric surgical procedures, which is the best procedure for long-term weight loss? a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure ... This procedure, which resulted in significant complications, has been largely replaced by gastric restriction procedures

Last Answer : a) Roux-en-Y The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is the recommended procedure for longterm weight loss. In this procedure, a horizontal row of staples creates a stomach pouch with a 1-cm stoma that is anastomosed with a portion of distal jejunum, creating a gastroenterostomy.

A patient with gross fecal contamination and peritonitis from a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum has his midline wound left open to heal by secondary intention. Which of the following statement(s) describes this healing process? a. Wounds healing in this fashion have an altered sequence of healing compared to a primarily closed wound b. A bed of granulation tissue forms over exposed subcutaneous tissue c. Epithelialization is enhanced in the face of bacterial colonization d. The ability of a wound to form granulation tissue is dependent on the blood supply of the tissue

Description : A patient with gross fecal contamination and peritonitis from a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum has his midline wound left open to heal by secondary intention. Which of the following statement(s) describes this ... of a wound to form granulation tissue is dependent on the blood supply of the tissue

Last Answer : Answer: b, d Open wounds, whether they be ulcers or open surgical incisions closing by secondary intention, heal with the same sequence of inflammation, matrix deposition, epithelialization ... via bacterial and phagocytic cell products such as proteases, collagenases, elastases, and other enzymes

Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult. b) Teenagers Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific, and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health. c) Children In general, the compliance of children depends on the compliance of their parents. d) Middle-aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Description : Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are ... -aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Last Answer : a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.

When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Description : When the balloon on the distal tip of a pulmonary artery catheter is inflated and a pressure is measured, the measurement obtained is referred to as the a) pulmonary artery wedge ... Cardiac output is determined through thermodilution involving injection of fluid into the pulmonary artery catheter.

Last Answer : a) pulmonary artery wedge pressure. When the balloon is inflated, the tip of the catheter floats into smaller branches of the pulmonary arty until it can no longer be passed and the pressure is recorded, reflecting left atrial pressure and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the management of an open wound? a. Frequent surgical debridement is usually necessary b. Water irrigation can effectively debride most wounds c. Hydrogen peroxide is particularly useful in the management of open wounds d. A number of the newer dressing products have clearly been shown to promote wound healing compared to simple moist occlusive dressing

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the management of an open wound? a. Frequent surgical debridement is usually necessary b. Water irrigation can effectively debride ... products have clearly been shown to promote wound healing compared to simple moist occlusive dressing

Last Answer : Answer: b Although there are numerous dressing products commercially available at present, no treatment has been demonstrated to improve healing beyond that of standard treatment which adheres to basic ... healing is achieved, there has been no evidence that one product is better than another

Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Description : Thrombolytic therapy instituted within 3-6 hours of onset of acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces mortality B. Reduces area of myocardial necrosis C. Preserves ventricular function D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

A burn which involves 2 layers of the skin and estroys the nerves and blood vessels, but does not go down to muscle or bone is a A. first-degree burn B. second-degree burn C. third-degree burn D. full-thickness burn

Description : A burn which involves 2 layers of the skin and estroys the nerves and blood vessels, but does not go down to muscle or bone is a A. first-degree burn B. second-degree burn C. third-degree burn D. full-thickness burn

Last Answer : Ans: B

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. c) PR interval The PR interval is a component of an ECG tracing reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the AV node. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG waveforms characterizes conduction of an electrical impulse through the left ventricle? a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization b) P ... QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization

Why do people ice sprains, or, why do people counter the body's natural inflammatory response?

Description : Why do people ice sprains, or, why do people counter the body's natural inflammatory response?

Last Answer : (Relatedly: is it useful to ice after exercising? Why?)