75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy,
the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects
would the nurse expect to assess?
1. Hypertension
2. Tremors
3. Hirsutism
4. Insomnia
5. Tachycardia
6. Hyperglycemia
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. 3, 4, 5, and 6
by

Related questions

74. Which of the following assessment findings when observed in a post-thyroidectomy client is indicative of a thyroid crisis?

Description : 74. Which of the following assessment findings when observed in a post-thyroidectomy client is indicative of a thyroid crisis?

Last Answer : C. High fever

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

57. The client was prescribed Ocreotide acetate (Sandostatin). Nurse Carla would monitor for which of the following side effects?

Description : 57. The client was prescribed Ocreotide acetate (Sandostatin). Nurse Carla would monitor for which of the following side effects?

Last Answer : A. Abdominal pain

Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the following will the nurse expect? A. No risk of aspiration during swallowing; speech is lost B. Normal speaking, breathing and swallowing are restored C. Unable to communicate with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Description : Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the ... with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Whcih one of the following is not a symptom of cushing’s disease? (A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypernatremia (C) Hirsutism (D) Hyperkalemia

Description : Whcih one of the following is not a symptom of cushing’s disease? (A) Hyperglycemia (B) Hypernatremia (C) Hirsutism (D) Hyperkalemia

Last Answer : Answer : D

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a vial that is almost empty. She was able to aspirate 60 mg only. Nurse Kristine decided to inject it instead of making the client wait until the next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Description : 77. Nurse Kristine is to inject Demerol 75 mg to a post-TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) client who is in pain. When she checked the narcotic cabinet, she found out a ... next Demerol vial is available. The action of the nurse violates which of the following ethical principles?

Last Answer : A. Justice

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Description : 55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Last Answer : B. “Have you ever vomited blood or noticed very black stools?”

Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, “Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies”. Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. Clarify information on purpose, anticipate benefits and consequences of total laryngectomy B. Explain that total laryngectomy results in loss of ability to verbally communicate C. Arrange a visit to a post-laryngectomy client who effectively uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Description : Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies . Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. ... uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Last Answer : D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

30. A T-tube was inserted and the physician ordered, “Monitor the amount, color, consistency and odor of drainage.” Which of the following procedures can the nurse perform without the doctor’s order?

Description : 30. A T-tube was inserted and the physician ordered, “Monitor the amount, color, consistency and odor of drainage.” Which of the following procedures can the nurse perform without the doctor’s order?

Last Answer : D. Emptying the drainage

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

After the last stitch, the surgeon is ready to apply dressing to the incision wound. Which of the following does the nurse expect the surgeon to do? A. Remove his gloves and apply the dressing B. Apply the dressings and tape and then remove his gloves C. Put the dressings and remove his gloves to apply the tape D. Tape the dressing and remove the gloves

Description : After the last stitch, the surgeon is ready to apply dressing to the incision wound. Which of the following does the nurse expect the surgeon to do? A. Remove his gloves and apply the dressing B. ... the dressings and remove his gloves to apply the tape D. Tape the dressing and remove the gloves

Last Answer : C. Put the dressings and remove his gloves to apply the tape

In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip. b) pillows under the lower legs. Pillows under the legs will not prevent the hips from rotating externally. c) a hip-abductor pillow. A hip-abductor pillow is used for the patient after total hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Description : In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be ... hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Last Answer : a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.

Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include (A) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia (B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold intolerance (C) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite (D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity

Description : Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include (A) Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia (B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold intolerance (C) Exophthalmos, goiter, tachycardia and loss of appetite (D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and obesity

Last Answer : Answer : A

A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Description : A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked ... has described? (a) Captopril (b) Guanethidine (c) Minoxidil (d) Prazosin (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: C

Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Description : Reviewing the laboratory findings of the client, the nurse would found which findings are elevated? 1. White blood cell count 2. Total serum bilirubin 3. Alkaline phosphate 4. Red blood cell count 5. Cholesterol 6. Serum amylase A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 3, 5, and 6 D. 1, 2, and 6

Last Answer : A. 1, 2, and 3

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to Fowler’s B. Reassure the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Description : In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to ... the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Last Answer : Which of the following expected outcomes for the patient is most relevant for the nursing diagnosis “At risk for imbalanced nutrition related to impaired swallowing”? A. Appropriate body weight maintained B. Fear of choking relieved C. Oral intake increased D. Swallowing of soft foods facilitated

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

Description : Korsakoff's syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff's syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, ... Huntington's disease results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug: A. Amitriptyline B. Lithium carbonate C. Lorazepam D. Buspirone

Description : The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug: A. Amitriptyline B. Lithium carbonate C. Lorazepam D. Buspirone

Last Answer : B. Lithium carbonate

What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Description : What must you be good at in order to be a nurse?

Last Answer : Drawing blood without digging a hole in the patient’s arm.

What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Description : What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the ... oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located.

Last Answer : a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen ... literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

Description : When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a ... saline q8h as ordered The nurse may irrigate a nephrostomy tube with specific orders to do so.

Last Answer : a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Description : For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated ... make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

61. A client with gout asks the nurse what food must be avoided so that the family can provide support. Which food has the highest in purine content and must be excluded from the dietary plan?

Description : 61. A client with gout asks the nurse what food must be avoided so that the family can provide support. Which food has the highest in purine content and must be excluded from the dietary plan?

Last Answer : D. Liver

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT). b) occur during the QRS complex. PVCs are dangerous when they occur on the T wave. c) have the same shape. PVCs are dangerous when they are multifocal (have different shapes). d) are paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Description : Premature ventricular contractions are considered precursors of ventricular tachycardia when they a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they ... paired with a normal beat. A PVC that is paired with a normal beat is termed bigeminy.

Last Answer : a) occur at a rate of more than six per minute. When PVCs occur at a rate of more than six per minute they indicate increasing ventricular irritability and are considered forerunners of ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia. b) Sinus tachycardia Sinus tachycardia occurs when the sinus node regularly creates an impulse at a faster-than-normal rate. c) Atrial flutter Atrial flutter occurs in the atrium and creates an atrial rate between 250-400 times per minute. d) Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.