Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A. Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B. Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in replacement of gastric secretions. C. Bicarbonate wasting is an unusual complication of a high-volume pancreatic fistula. D. Balanced salt solution is a reasonable replacement fluid for a small bowel fistula. E. A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.

Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A.  Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B.  Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in replacement of gastric secretions. C.  Bicarbonate wasting is an unusual complication of a high-volume pancreatic fistula. D.  Balanced salt solution is a reasonable replacement fluid for a small bowel fistula. E.  A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.
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Answer: DE  DISCUSSION: Gastric secretions are relatively high in chloride and potassium. Other than an isolated pancreatic fistula, gastrointestinal tract losses below the pylorus are best replaced by a balanced salt solution. Although potassium concentrations are low, copious losses require potassium supplementation to prevent hypokalemia
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Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

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Which of the following statements regarding hypercalcemia are true? A. The symptoms of hypercalcemia may mimic some symptoms of hyperglycemia. B. Metastatic breast cancer is an unusual cause of hypercalcemia. C. Calcitonin is a satisfactory long-term therapy for hypercalcemia. D. Severely hypercalcemic patients exhibit the signs of extracellular fluid volume deficit. E. Urinary calcium excretion may be increased by vigorous volume repletion.

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Which of the following statements concerning monitoring techniques in the intensive care unit are true? A. Pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure readings should be made at end inspiration, to minimize ventilatory artifacts. B. Continuous SvO 2 monitoring based on the technique of reflectance spectrophotometry has been shown to be accurate and reliable. C. Direct measurement of gastric intramucosal pH can be provided by gastrointestinal tonometry. D. Hyperlactatemia may be seen in a number of clinical conditions not associated with tissue hypoxia, including liver disease and hypermetabolic states.

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Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Many different monitoring techniques may be used to assess the adequacy of therapy for shock. The pulmonary artery catheter can provide important hemodynamic and oxygen ... also be seen with liver disease, toxin ingestion, and hypermetabolic states not associated with shock

Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin. C. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

Which of the following statements about extracellular fluid are true? A. The total extracellular fluid volume represents 40% of the body weight. B. The plasma volume constitutes one fourth of the total extracellular fluid volume. C. Potassium is the principal cation in extracellular fluid. D. The protein content of the plasma produces a lower concentration of cations than in the interstitial fluid. E. The interstitial fluid equilibrates slowly with the other body compartments.

Description : Which of the following statements about extracellular fluid are true? A. The total extracellular fluid volume represents 40% of the body weight. B. The plasma volume constitutes one fourth ... the interstitial fluid. E. The interstitial fluid equilibrates slowly with the other body compartments.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: The total extracellular fluid volume represents 20% of body weight. The plasma volume is approximately 5% of body weight. Sodium is the principal cation. The ... fluid and cerebrospinal fluid, the majority of the interstitial fluid exists as a rapidly equilibrating component

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the healthy population. B. The presence of gallstones, regardless of the presence of symptoms, is an indication for cholecystectomy in a diabetes patient. C. Diabetes patients with gallstones and chronic biliary pain should be managed nonoperatively with chemical dissolution and/or lithotripsy because of severe complicating medical conditions and a high operative risk. D. The presence of diabetes and gallstones places the patient at high risk for pancreatic cancer. E. Diabetes patients with symptomatic gallstones should have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and g

Description : Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the ... have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and gallbladder necrosis.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Gallstones have been found to be very prevalent in patients with type II (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, perhaps related to the dyslipoproteinemia in ... added mortality associated with it. There is no causal relationship between diabetes and pancreatic cancer

A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) have been proven correct by prospective trials? a. Preoperative TPN is beneficial in surgical patients with severe preoperative nutrition b. Postoperative TPN is of value following pancreatic resection c. Routine use of perioperative (including prior to the procedure) TPN is of benefit in patients undergoing hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Description : A number of prospective clinical trials have addressed the role of total parenteral nutrition in the cancer patient. The results have been somewhat conflicting. Which of the following statement(s) ... hepatectomy for hepatoma d. TPN is of no benefit in patients undergoing bone marrow transplant

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Numerous clinical trials have failed to yield a consensus with regard to the efficacy of TPN in cancer patients. In 1991, a multicenter VA cooperative trial demonstrated ... patients receiving bone marrow transplantation has also been shown to be a valuable component of overall care

A 16-year-old boy suffers a mid-gut volvulus with massive loss of small intestine. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his nutritional requirements and management? a. If at least 18 inches of residual small intestine survives, the patient may tolerate some form of enteral nutrition b. A nutritional regimen consisting of supplemental glutamine, growth hormone, and a modified high carbohydrate, low fat diet may be beneficial in this patient c. The regimen described above may decrease the cost of care d. TPN needs will increase after discontinuation of growth hormone

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Prior to the availability of TPN, most patients developing short bowel syndrome from either surgery or catastrophic event died. In selected patients, however, with ... the growth hormone did not increase TPN needs in patients once they had undergone successful gut rehabilitation

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

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Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Which of the following factors have been demonstrated to promote wound healing in normal individuals? a. Vitamin A supplementation b. Vitamin C supplementation c. Vitamin E application to the wound d. Zinc supplementation e. None of the above

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Last Answer : Answer: e Several important systemic factors or conditions influence wound healing. Interestingly, there are no known systemic conditions that lead to enhanced or more rapid wound healing. ... support the concept that supranormal provision of these factors enhance wound healing in normal patients

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary benefit in critical illness c. Glutamine is included in most standard TPN solutions d. Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

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Last Answer : Answer: b Glutamine is the most studied gut-specific nutrient. Glutamine has been classified as a nonessential or nutritionally dispensable amino acid since glutamine can be synthesized in adequate ... . In contrast to glutamine, short chain fatty acids are primary energy source for colonocytes

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis b. A major disadvantage of the peripheral technique is limited caloric delivery c. If total parenteral nutrition is required, access to the superior vena cava via the external jugular vein is the most suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

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Last Answer : Answer: b Although peripheral access can be used for intravenous nutrition, the major disadvantage of this technique is limited caloric delivery to meet catabolic demands within tolerated fluid ... studies that use phlebography or radionucleotide venography indicate the incidence is as high as 35%

Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the amino acid type listed? a. Acute renal failure and essential amino acids b. Hepatic failure and aromatic amino acids c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids

Description : Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the ... c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In a number of conditions, altering the amino acid profile of the total parenteral nutrition solution can be of benefit. TPN with amino acids of high biologic value ... Glutamine-enriched TPN partially attenuates villous atrophy and may be useful in treatment of short gut syndrome

The first line of host defense is the barrier presented to the external environment. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning host barriers? a. Sebaceous glands secrete chemical compounds that maintain a relatively high pH, providing effective bacterial stasis b. Within the respiratory tract, ciliary function serves to extrude microorganisms trapped within the mucus secretion layer c. The low pH within the stomach markedly decreases bacterial content of the upper gastrointestinal tract d. Gut peristalsis serves to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

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Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d The skin, mucus membranes, and epithelial layers of various organs of the body constitute effective physical barriers against microbial invasion. In certain portions of the ... very low pH within the stomach and gut peristalsis both serve to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).

Recurrent vomiting leads to loss of (A) Potassium (B) Chloride (C) Bicarbonate (D) All of these

Description : Recurrent vomiting leads to loss of (A) Potassium (B) Chloride (C) Bicarbonate (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : B

A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The patient likely is suffering from hypovolemic shock and should respond quickly to fluid resuscitation b. Beck’s triad will likely be an obvious indication of compressive cardiogenic shock due to pericardial tamponade c. Echocardiography is the most sensitive noninvasive approach for diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Description : A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his ... diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Last Answer : Answer: c Shock from cardiac compression occurs when external pressure on the heart impairs ventricular filling. Because ventricular filling is a function of venous return and myocardial compliance, ... sternotomy. Chest tube placement would not be appropriate as the sole treatment in this patient

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can ... may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c The introduction of microorganisms into the normally sterile peritoneal environment invoke several potent specialized host antimicrobial defense mechanisms. Bacterial clearance, ... the contaminated enteric contents walled off, preventing continued soilage of the peritoneal cavity

Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Description : Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would ... all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% of systemic vascular resistance b. Endogenous epinephrine is the primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance c. Increased pancreatic secretion of glucagon contributes to glucose intolerance associated with injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

Which of the following statements about normal salt and water balance are true? A. The products of catabolism may be excreted by as little as 300 ml. of urine per day. B. The lungs represent the primary source of insensible water loss. C. The normal daily insensible water loss is 600 to 900 ml. D. Excessive cell catabolism causes significant loss of total body water. E. In normal humans, urine represents the greatest source of daily water loss.

Description : Which of the following statements about normal salt and water balance are true? A. The products of catabolism may be excreted by as little as 300 ml. of urine per day. B. The lungs represent ... of total body water. E. In normal humans, urine represents the greatest source of daily water loss.

Last Answer : Answer: CE DISCUSSION: The skin is the primary source of insensible water loss. Including losses from the lungs, this averages 600 to 900 ml. per day. Catabolism liberates water of solution. In ... still excrete a minimum of 500 to 800 ml. of urine per day to expel the products of catabolism

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5-10 rules out ... sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Although physical findings are often adequate to establish a diagnosis and institute management of cardiac failure, direct measurement of filling pressures of the right heart ( ... blood volume is normal, filling pressures are normal, and total body extracellular fluid is excessive

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial response to restore intravascular volume b. With larger volume hemorrhagic shock deterioration of normal cellular transmembrane potential occurs resulting in an increase in extracellular sodium and water c. The accumulation of anaerobic metabolites override normal homeostatic vasomotor tone and contribute to the maladaptive vasodilatation d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial ... d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Moderate hypovolemia results in a relatively rapid spontaneous restitution of intravascular volume through expansion of the plasma space. This plasma expansion by ... potassium pump. Cellular dysfunction also appears to be related to abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis

All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic agent, should be given immediately for resuscitation from hemorrhagic shock, to increase cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to hypoperfused tissues. C. The use of colloid solutions or hypertonic saline solutions is contraindicated for treatment of hemorrhagic shock. D. In hemorrhagic shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Description : All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic ... shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Hemorrhagic shock is associated with a contraction of the interstitial fluid compartment because of precapillary vasoconstriction and reabsorption of interstitial fluid ... definitive evidence that such solutions are better than standard crystalloid solutions is lacking

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carbon dioxide kinetics? a. The amount of carbon dioxide produced is equivalent to the amount of oxygen consumed b. Carbon dioxide levels in blood, present mostly as a bicarbonate ion, can quickly change c. Normally the amount of carbon dioxide excreted through the lung is exactly equal to the amount of carbon dioxide produced in peripheral tissues d. The amount of carbon dioxide excreted is a function of ventilation of perfused alveoli

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carbon dioxide kinetics? a. The amount of carbon dioxide produced is equivalent to the amount of oxygen consumed b. Carbon dioxide levels ... tissues d. The amount of carbon dioxide excreted is a function of ventilation of perfused alveoli

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The total amount of carbon dioxide produced by systemic metabolism is roughly equivalent to the amount of oxygen consumed (100-120 cc/m2/min, 200 cc/min in a typical ... carbon dioxide excreted is a function of ventilation of perfused alveoli (i.e. the alveolar ventilation/min).

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Advantages of epidural analgesia include: A. Earlier mobilization after surgery. B. Earlier return of bowel function. C. Shorter hospitalizations. D. Decreased stress response to surgery. E. All of the above.

Description : Advantages of epidural analgesia include: A. Earlier mobilization after surgery. B. Earlier return of bowel function. C. Shorter hospitalizations. D. Decreased stress response to surgery. E. All of the above.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Epidural analgesia include excellent pain relief, decreased sedation with more rapid recovery to presurgical levels of consciousness, earlier mobilization after surgery ... , shorter hospitalizations, and decreased morbidity have all been associated with epidural analgesia

The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency with an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) and/or an abnormal activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. For the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Description : The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency ... the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: The use of FFP as a volume expander is not indicated. There are currently several preparations (both crystalloid and colloid) that are equally effective and do not carry the infectious and ... vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and protein S

Which of the following statements are true of elevated–anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric acids may lead to this form of acidosis. C. Copious diarrhea does not produce this condition. D. Rapid volume expansion may produce this form of acidosis. E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of elevated-anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoperfusion from the shock state rarely produces an elevated anion gap. B. Retention of sulfuric and phosphoric ... E. Use of lactated Ringer's solution is inappropriate in the treatment of lactic acidosis.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: An elevated anion gap may be produced by lactic acidosis from shock or by retention of inorganic acids from uremia. Lactated Ringer's solution rapidly corrects the ... . Bicarbonate loss from diarrhea and dilutional acidosis are non-anion gap types of metabolic acidosis

A high serum potassium, accompanied by a high intracellular potassium occurs in (A) Adrenal insufficiency (B) Any illness (C) Gastrointestinal losses (D) Cushing’s syndrome

Description : A high serum potassium, accompanied by a high intracellular potassium occurs in (A) Adrenal insufficiency (B) Any illness (C) Gastrointestinal losses (D) Cushing’s syndrome

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which of the following statements regarding whole blood transfusion is/are correct? A. Whole blood is the most commonly used red cell preparation for transfusion in the United States. B. Whole blood is effective in the replacement of acute blood loss. C. Most blood banks in the United States have large supplies of whole blood available. D. The use of whole blood produces higher rates of disease transmission than the use of individual component therapies.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding whole blood transfusion is/are correct? A. Whole blood is the most commonly used red cell preparation for transfusion in the United States. B. ... whole blood produces higher rates of disease transmission than the use of individual component therapies.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Whole blood is effective as a replacement fluid for acute blood loss because it provides both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity (red blood cells). It is rarely used in the ... the use of packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets, each from a different donor

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.