Advantages of epidural analgesia include: A. Earlier mobilization after surgery. B. Earlier return of bowel function. C. Shorter hospitalizations. D. Decreased stress response to surgery. E. All of the above.

Advantages of epidural analgesia include: A.  Earlier mobilization after surgery. B.  Earlier return of bowel function. C.  Shorter hospitalizations. D.  Decreased stress response to surgery. E.  All of the above.
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Answer: E  DISCUSSION: Epidural analgesia include excellent pain relief, decreased sedation with more rapid recovery to presurgical levels of consciousness, earlier mobilization after surgery with increased ability to co-operate with respiratory therapy and physical therapy. Following vascular surgery epidural analgesia may also improve graft flow through mild sympathetic blockade. Earlier return of bowel function, decreased stress response, shorter hospitalizations, and decreased morbidity have all been associated with epidural analgesia
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Advantages of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) include: A. Immediate medication delivery. B. Less contact with nursing staff. C. Rapid onset of analgesia. D. Patient control over pain medication. E. All of the above.

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Last Answer : Answer: ACD DISCUSSION: Advantages of PCA are immediate medication delivery, rapid onset of analgesia, and patient control over pain medication. Disadvantages of PCA are less contact with ... ' fears that they could inadvertently administer an overdose or possibly become addicted to the opioid

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the microvascular and cellular response to shock? a. Osmodically induced mobilization of intracellular fluid is the initial response to restore intravascular volume b. With larger volume hemorrhagic shock deterioration of normal cellular transmembrane potential occurs resulting in an increase in extracellular sodium and water c. The accumulation of anaerobic metabolites override normal homeostatic vasomotor tone and contribute to the maladaptive vasodilatation d. Abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis may contribute to the cellular dysfunction of shock

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Last Answer : Answer: c, d Moderate hypovolemia results in a relatively rapid spontaneous restitution of intravascular volume through expansion of the plasma space. This plasma expansion by ... potassium pump. Cellular dysfunction also appears to be related to abnormal intracellular calcium homeostasis

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

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A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

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Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Wounds are classified under three classes according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination: 1) clean (no viscus is entered; e.g., herniorrhaphy); 2) clean- ... tenet involves cases in which a prosthetic material may be used (artificial joint, heart valve, tissue patch)

Under certain circumstances, the gut may become a source of sepsis and serve as the motor of systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Microbial translocation is the process by which microorganisms migrate across the mucosal barrier to invade the host. Which of the following mechanisms can promote bacterial translocation? a. An increased number of gut bacteria b. Altered intestinal mucosal permeability c. Decreased host defense mechanisms d. Lack of enteral feeding

Description : Under certain circumstances, the gut may become a source of sepsis and serve as the motor of systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Microbial translocation is the process by which microorganisms ... intestinal mucosal permeability c. Decreased host defense mechanisms d. Lack of enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d 99 Translocation is promoted in three general ways: 1) altered permeability of the intestinal mucosa as caused by shock, sepsis, distant injury, or cell toxins; 2) ... trauma patient d. Fifty percent of non-nitrogen caloric requirements should be provided in the form of fat

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

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Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

Ketorolac: A. Is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) approved for intravenous, intramuscular, and oral administration. B. Can be used indefinitely for postoperative analgesia. C. Can cause renal dysfunction. D. May decrease surgical blood loss.

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The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude. b) Nutritional foundation Relaxation techniques do not encompass specific nutritional guidelines. c) Analgesic preparation Relaxation techniques are used to reduce one’s response to stress and do not require analgesia prior to practicing the techniques. d) Physician’s order A physician’s order is not required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one’s response to stress.

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Last Answer : a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude.

In the nutritional support of patients with cancer, which of the following statements is/are true? A. Nutritional support benefits the patient's lean body mass but does not enable the tumor to grow. B. In experimental animals, the growth of implanted tumors is directly proportional to the amount of calories and protein supplied. C. Prospective randomized trials of nutritional support utilizing chemotherapy and radiation therapy have revealed benefits to patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. D. Studies of nutritional support for patients with cancer about to undergo surgery revealed decreased morbidity and mortality, especially morbidity from sepsis.

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Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: The problem with the patient with cancer is a very vexing one. Clearly, one of the metabolic effects of cancer, cachexia, affects patients in the last quartile ... undoubtedly reveal that there are certain nutrients that tumors require, which probably should be best avoided

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

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Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Low concentration of bupivacaine is preferred for spinal / epidural obstetric analgesia because: A. It has a longer duration of action B. It can produce sensory blockade without paralysing abdominal muscles C. It distributes more in maternal tissues so that less reaches the foetus D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Cytokines which play an important role in the metabolic response to injury include: a. Tumor necrosis factor—a (TNF) b. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) d. Interferon-g

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Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who do not require an emergency operation and who have severe weight loss (> 15% of pre-illness body weight) and a serum albumen < 2.9 mg%. Preoperative nutrition (enteral or parenteral) should not be given for longer than 7 to 10 days. Enteral nutrition is always the preferred route of feeding cancer patients if the GI tract is functional. There are several benefits of using the bowel lumen for nutrient delivery. The trophic effects of enteral feeding on small bowel mucosa have been well described. The integrity of the mucosal lining is maintained and it may provide an effective barrier to intraluminal

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Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A. Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B. Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in replacement of gastric secretions. C. Bicarbonate wasting is an unusual complication of a high-volume pancreatic fistula. D. Balanced salt solution is a reasonable replacement fluid for a small bowel fistula. E. A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.

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Last Answer : Answer: DE DISCUSSION: Gastric secretions are relatively high in chloride and potassium. Other than an isolated pancreatic fistula, gastrointestinal tract losses below the pylorus ... Although potassium concentrations are low, copious losses require potassium supplementation to prevent hypokalemia

Von Willebrand’s disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand’s disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is much more common in men b. A history of spontaneous bleeding is common c. Screening laboratory tests will include a prolonged aPTT with a normal prothrombin time d. Pre-treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23–50% of normal

Description : Von Willebrand's disease is a common, congenital bleeding disorder. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Von Willebrand's disease? a. As in hemophilia, it is ... -treatment for elective surgery require administration of cryoprecipitate to achieve levels of 23-50% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: c, d Von Willebrand's factor is an adhesive protein that mediates platelet adhesion to collagen. In addition, it protects and prevents the rapid removal of factor VIII ... platelet aggregation responses to ristocetin. The most reliable source of Von Willebrand's factor is cryoprecipitate

Appropriate guidelines for the use of TPN in cancer patients include: a. Long-term TPN in patients with rapid progressive tumor growth unresponsive to other therapy b. Mildly malnourished patients undergoing surgery for a curable cancer c. Preoperatively administered TPN prior to surgery or other therapy in patients with severe malnutrition d. Patients in whom treatment toxicity precludes the use of enteral nutrition

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Last Answer : Answer: c, d As a general rule, the most important factor to consider when making decisions about the use of TPN in patients with cancer is the response of the tumor to antineoplastic ... . Long-term TPN is not indicated with rapidly progressive tumor growth which is unresponsive to such therapy

Discharge criteria following ambulatory surgery include: A. Ability to eat solid food. B. Stable vital signs. C. Ability to ambulate. D. Ability to have protective airway reflexes.

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Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: Discharge criteria following ambulatory surgery include the patient's being fully awake and oriented, the ability to have protective airway reflexes, stable vital signs, adequate ... with them to transport them-and ideally to stay with them on the first postoperative night

The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Description : The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count ( ... (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

Last Answer : Answer: A DISCUSSION: The evaluation of most patients scheduled for elective surgery who do not have a history of significant bleeding disorders is somewhat controversial. An adequate history and ... suspected of having qualitative defects of platelet function (e.g., von Willebrand's disease)

The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this arm of the surgical stress response? a. Cytokines primarily work locally via direct cell-to-cell communication b. Cytokines are never detectable in the systemic bloodstream c. Cytokines are produced only by immune cells attracted to the site of injury d. Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Cytokines, which are produced at the site of injury by endothelial cells and by diverse immune cells throughout the body, also occupy a pivotal position in the stress response ... act as hormones and spill over into the systemic circulation and become detectable in the bloodstream

Which of the following are determinants of the host response to surgical stress? a. Gender b. Age c. Nutritional status d. Body composition

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The pattern of physiologic changes elicited in response to surgical stress results from the specific interaction of an individual patient with a stressful stimulus. Several ... net loss of nitrogen after major elective abdominal surgery generally being lower in women than in men

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can ... may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c The introduction of microorganisms into the normally sterile peritoneal environment invoke several potent specialized host antimicrobial defense mechanisms. Bacterial clearance, ... the contaminated enteric contents walled off, preventing continued soilage of the peritoneal cavity

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary benefit in critical illness c. Glutamine is included in most standard TPN solutions d. Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary ... . Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

Last Answer : Answer: b Glutamine is the most studied gut-specific nutrient. Glutamine has been classified as a nonessential or nutritionally dispensable amino acid since glutamine can be synthesized in adequate ... . In contrast to glutamine, short chain fatty acids are primary energy source for colonocytes

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

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Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. Venoconstriction from skeletal muscle is a significant contributor to the restoration of blood volume with shock c. Arterial vasoconstriction affects all vascular beds equally d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. ... d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

Last Answer : Answer: a Central in the general cardiovascular response to shock is the action of the heart itself. The principle determinants of cardiac function in the normal heart are the volume of blood ... Blood flow to the skin is sacrificed early, followed by that to the kidneys and splanchnic viscera

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d, e Classification schemes of shock based on cause have been developed for the seemingly dissimilar processes leading to circulatory collapse and the shock state. ... and pressor agents. The response to exogenous corticosteroids is usually dramatic and potentially life-saving

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Description : Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of ... a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood

Which of the following statements about total body water composition are correct? A. Females and obese persons have an increased percentage of body water. B. Increased muscle mass is associated with decreased total body water. C. Newborn infants have the greatest proportion of total body water. D. Total body water decreases steadily with age. E. Any person's percentage of body water is subject to wide physiologic variation.

Description : Which of the following statements about total body water composition are correct? A. Females and obese persons have an increased percentage of body water. B. Increased muscle mass is associated with ... age. E. Any person's percentage of body water is subject to wide physiologic variation.

Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: Since fat contains little water, lean persons with a proportionately greater muscle mass have a greater than expected volume of total body water. Likewise, the ... decreases steadily and significantly with age. The actual figure for a healthy person is remarkably constant

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Which of the following is/are not associated with increased likelihood of infection after major elective surgery? A. Age over 70 years. B. Chronic malnutrition. C. Controlled diabetes mellitus. D. Long-term steroid use. E. Infection at a remote body site.

Description : Which of the following is/are not associated with increased likelihood of infection after major elective surgery? A. Age over 70 years. B. Chronic malnutrition. C. Controlled diabetes mellitus. D. Long-term steroid use. E. Infection at a remote body site.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Controlled diabetes mellitus has been shown repeatedly not to be associated with increased likelihood of incisional infection provided one avoids operations on body parts ... site-are well-recognized adverse predictive factors and are identified in tables within the chapter

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated intervascular coagulation (DIC) is considered. Which of the following laboratory test(s) is/are indicative of DIC? a. Decreased platelet count b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Description : A 67-year-old male with advanced cholangiocarcinoma develops gram-negative sepsis. Excessive bleeding is noted around vascular catheters and from needle puncture sites. The diagnosis of disseminated ... b. Decreased fibrinogen level c. Normal prothrombin time d. Elevated fibrin split products

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the primary form of acute thrombosis. Causes of this syndrome include abruptio placenta, gram-positive and gram-negative sepsis, ... decline in the platelet count and fibrinogen level, along with an elevation of fibrin split products

Which of the following statement(s) describe the effects of aging on wound healing? a. A finer, more cosmetic scar might be expected b. In vitro studies demonstrate decreased proliferative potential of fibroblasts and epithelial cells c. Skin sutures should be left in for a longer period of time d. Wound infection occurs more frequently in elderly patients due to diminished ability to fight infection

Description : Which of the following statement(s) describe the effects of aging on wound healing? a. A finer, more cosmetic scar might be expected b. In vitro studies demonstrate decreased proliferative ... . Wound infection occurs more frequently in elderly patients due to diminished ability to fight infection

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c There are important age-dependent aspects of wound healing. The elderly heal more slowly and with less scarring. There is a gradual attenuation of the inflammatory ... the sutures. There is no evidence to suggest that wound infections occur more commonly in elderly patients

A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following statements is/are true? A. This formulation is proposed for the use of patients with fulminant hepatitis. B. Nitrogen balance is achieved in such patients with amounts of 40 gm. of amino acids per 24 hours. C. The use of 80 to 100 gm. of such solutions is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Description : A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following ... D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: The use of modified amino acid solutions is based on the false neurotransmitter hypothesis of the cause of hepatic coma. According to this hypothesis, the imbalance ... in a group of patients with cirrhosis, decreasing morbidity and showing a trend toward decreased mortality

Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported with both essential and nonessential amino acid therapy of patients in renal failure. B. Essential amino acids retard the rise of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) secondary to decreased urea appearance. C. Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose are a convenient form of therapy for hyperkalemia. D. Essential amino acids decrease BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Description : Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported ... BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question

Which of the following statements about the preparation and storage of blood components is/are true? A. Solutions containing citrate prevent coagulation by binding calcium. B. The shelf life of packed red blood cells preserved with CPDA-1 is approximately 35 days at 1؛ to 6؛ C. C. There are normal numbers of platelets in packed red blood cells stored at 1؛ to 6؛ C for more than 2 days. D. The storage lesion affecting refrigerated packed red blood cells includes development of acidosis, hyperkalemia, and decreased intracellular 2,3DPG (diphosphoglycerate).

Description : Which of the following statements about the preparation and storage of blood components is/are true? A. Solutions containing citrate prevent coagulation by binding calcium. B. The ... cells includes development of acidosis, hyperkalemia, and decreased intracellular 2,3DPG (diphosphoglycerate).

Last Answer : Answer: ABD DISCUSSION: After blood has been collected from a donor, it is anticoagulated with a solution containing citrate, which acts by binding calcium. Blood is then separated into its ... transfusion or produce effects other than those predicted based on the content of the unit of blood

A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland b. ACTH stimulation results in elevation of serum cortisol levels for up to a week after the operation c. An increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH may contribute to postoperative fluid retention d. An increase in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the antibody response to an invading antigen? a. All antibodies are composed of one type of heavy and one type of light protein chain b. The carboxyl terminus of the heavy chain is the antigen binding site c. Antibody of the immunoglobulin G class is the initial antibody produced in response to an antigenic stimulus d. Immunoglobulins A, D, and E play an active role in the circulating humoral response

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the antibody response to an invading antigen? a. All antibodies are composed of one type of heavy and one type of light protein chain b. ... stimulus d. Immunoglobulins A, D, and E play an active role in the circulating humoral response

Last Answer : Answer: a Humoral defenses consist of antibody (immunoglobulin; Ig) and complement. All Ig classes (IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD) and IgG subclasses are composed of one type (M, G, A, E, D ... exist in smaller amounts in the circulation and do not appear to play a major role as host defense components

In contrast to adult wound healing with scar formation, which of the following are characteristic of scarless fetal skin repair? A. Matrix rich in hyaluronic acid. B. Increased inflammatory response. C. Increased production of TGF-b. D. No collagen deposition. E. Minimal angiogenesis.

Description : In contrast to adult wound healing with scar formation, which of the following are characteristic of scarless fetal skin repair? A. Matrix rich in hyaluronic acid. B. Increased inflammatory response. C. Increased production of TGF-b. D. No collagen deposition. E. Minimal angiogenesis.

Last Answer : Answer: AE DISCUSSION: The ability of a fetus to heal without scar formation depends on its gestational age at the time of injury and the size of the wound defect. In ... repair has possible clinical applications in the modulation of adult fibrotic diseases and abnormal scar-forming conditions

Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

Absolute indications for a double-lumen endotracheal tube during thoracic surgery are: A. Massive hemorrhage from one lung. B. Unilateral lung infection. C. Facilitation of surgical exposure. D. Unilateral bronchopulmonary lavage. E. All of the above.

Description : Absolute indications for a double-lumen endotracheal tube during thoracic surgery are: A. Massive hemorrhage from one lung. B. Unilateral lung infection. C. Facilitation of surgical exposure. D. Unilateral bronchopulmonary lavage. E. All of the above.

Last Answer : Answer: ABD DISCUSSION: The absolute indications for a double-lumen tube are for the purposes of protecting one lung from the other. These indications include ventilation with ... include facilitation of surgical exposure, for pneumonectomy, upper lobectomy, and thoracic aneurysm repair

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Description : New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Last Answer : Answer: e Selective gut decontamination involves the use of orally administered antibiotics that achieve a high intraluminal level directed against gram-negative aerobes and yeast, leaving ... but conclusive evidence that concurrent reduction of infection-related mortality occurs is not available

Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment