The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera
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Answer: a, b, c  The introduction of microorganisms into the normally sterile peritoneal environment invoke several potent specialized host antimicrobial defense mechanisms. Bacterial clearance, also termed translymphatic absorption, occurs through specialized structures found only on the peritoneal mesothelium on the underside of the diaphragm that act as conduits for both fluid and particulate matter. Lymphatic channels eventually form which drain into the venous circulation via the thoracic duct. Bacteria not cleared via translymphatic absorption are rapidly engulfed by resident and recruited phagocytic cells including resident macrophages on the peritoneal surface and omentum and attracted PMNs. The final primitive host defense mechanism is sequestration by which a fibrinogen-rich exudate containing plasma oposonins appears during peritoneal infection and fibrin polymerization occurs. Fibrin has the capacity to trap large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter. Acting in conjunction with omentum and other mobile viscera, perforations are sealed and the contaminated enteric contents walled off, preventing continued soilage of the peritoneal cavity
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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages may become activated and secrete cytokines c. Macrophages serve as phagocytic cells in the tissues but not within the bloodstream d. Polymorphonucleocytes (PMNS) are normally present in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages ... in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

Last Answer : Answer: b, d A wide variety of cell types serve to provide host defense at several levels. Macrophages act as the initial antigen processing cell that serves to ... through diapedesis after chemotactic stimuli are excluded by macrophages, bacterial breakdown products, and complement activation

Under certain circumstances, the gut may become a source of sepsis and serve as the motor of systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Microbial translocation is the process by which microorganisms migrate across the mucosal barrier to invade the host. Which of the following mechanisms can promote bacterial translocation? a. An increased number of gut bacteria b. Altered intestinal mucosal permeability c. Decreased host defense mechanisms d. Lack of enteral feeding

Description : Under certain circumstances, the gut may become a source of sepsis and serve as the motor of systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Microbial translocation is the process by which microorganisms ... intestinal mucosal permeability c. Decreased host defense mechanisms d. Lack of enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d 99 Translocation is promoted in three general ways: 1) altered permeability of the intestinal mucosa as caused by shock, sepsis, distant injury, or cell toxins; 2) ... trauma patient d. Fifty percent of non-nitrogen caloric requirements should be provided in the form of fat

The complement system consists of a series of serum proteins that exist in a quiescent or very low-level state of activation in the uninfected host. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning complement activation? a. The alternate (properdin) pathway of complement activation can occur directly through contact with fungal or bacterial cell wall compounds b. Complement component fragments may serve to decrease vascular permeability c. Excessive complement activation can produce deleterious effects d. Fragments of certain complement components serve as chemoattractants to additional cellular components of the host defense mechanism

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Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Complement activation can occur through either classic or alternate (properdin) pathways, both of which eventuate in deposition of terminal complement pathway components on the ... and release of lysosomal enzymes that can directly damage certain target tissues, such as the lung

Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. Bacteria, protein exudate, and necrotic tissue all will compromise this process b. Epithelial cells exhibit contact proliferation c. Epithelialization occurs only from the margins of the wound d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d The initial step of epithelialization involves epithelial cells from the basal layer of the wound edge flattening and migrating across the wound, completing wound coverage within 24- ... abrasions and burns may scar significantly. Whenever the dermis is incised, a scar will form

A striking feature of living cells is a marked difference between the composition of the cytosol and the extracellular milieu. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the mechanisms of maintenance of these differences is/are true? a. The cell membrane is able to maintain a 10,000 fold gradient between the extracellular concentration of ionized calcium and the intracellular concentration b. The key to these differences is the fact that the plasma membrane is normally impermeable to sodium, potassium and calcium c. The selectivity of biologic membranes is highly consistent and seldom changes d. The selectivity of cell membranes relates only to ions and not organic compounds

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Last Answer : Answer: a The survival of the cell requires that cytosolic composition be maintained within narrow limits, despite the constant influx of nutrients and the simultaneous outflow of waste. A ... be altered drastically as a result of regulatory or signaling processes that occur within the cell

The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this arm of the surgical stress response? a. Cytokines primarily work locally via direct cell-to-cell communication b. Cytokines are never detectable in the systemic bloodstream c. Cytokines are produced only by immune cells attracted to the site of injury d. Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Cytokines, which are produced at the site of injury by endothelial cells and by diverse immune cells throughout the body, also occupy a pivotal position in the stress response ... act as hormones and spill over into the systemic circulation and become detectable in the bloodstream

A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ failure. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning necessary changes to be made in his nutritional management? a. Carbohydrate load should be reduced in the face of respiratory failure b. In patients with renal failure, protein intake should be diminished c. During hemodialysis protein intake should be limited to the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Description : A 59-year-old trauma patient has suffered multiple septic complications including severe pneumonia, intraabdominal abscess, and major wound infection. He has now developed signs of multisystem organ ... the same extent d. In patients with hepatic failure, carbohydrate load should be increased

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The most severe complication of sepsis is multiple system organ dysfunction syndrome, which may result in death. The development of organ failure requires changes in the ... should be provided as fat emulsion. If encephalopathy develops, protein load should also be reduced0

The first line of host defense is the barrier presented to the external environment. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning host barriers? a. Sebaceous glands secrete chemical compounds that maintain a relatively high pH, providing effective bacterial stasis b. Within the respiratory tract, ciliary function serves to extrude microorganisms trapped within the mucus secretion layer c. The low pH within the stomach markedly decreases bacterial content of the upper gastrointestinal tract d. Gut peristalsis serves to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

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Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d The skin, mucus membranes, and epithelial layers of various organs of the body constitute effective physical barriers against microbial invasion. In certain portions of the ... very low pH within the stomach and gut peristalsis both serve to prevent microbial adherence and invasion

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose metabolism lead to the development of efficient substrate utilization b. A progressive rise in serum triglyceride levels result from less efficient clearance and increased hepatic lipogenesis c. A net negative nitrogen balance occurs due to the oxidative metabolism of proteins to meet energy needs d. The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning metabolic derangements in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome which may follow progressive shock? a. Alterations in glucose ... The serum aromatic amino acids fall rapidly as they are actively used in oxidative metabolism

Last Answer : Answer: b, c A broad spectrum of metabolic abnormalities become apparent in sepsis and the systemic inflammatory response syndrome following shock. Disruption of the normal cycles of carbohydrate, ... acetyl coenzyme A. This results in reduced serum level of leucine, isoleucine and valine

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the clinical management of an open wound? a. A wet-to-dry dressing is the most optimal form of wound management b. A moist occlusive dressing promotes epithelialization and reduces pain c. The protein rich plasma exudate covering the open wound facilitates healing d. Irrigation of the wound disrupts epithelialization therefore inhibiting the healing process

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Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the toxic effects that occur during gram-negative bacterial sepsis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning LPS and the host response. a. The LPS molecule can in itself cause physiologic responses similar to that seen during gram-negative bacterial sepsis b. LPS triggers host macrophages to release a variety of cytokines including TNF-a, IL-1a, and IL-1b, IL-6, and IFN-a c. Excessive cytokine production is not associated with detrimental consequences d. TNFa and IL-1b appear to be the primary mediators within the host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the syst

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d The LPS molecule exerts diverse effects on the mammalian host. Immunologic responses to LPS include nonspecific polyclonal B-cell proliferation, macrophage activation and ... deleterious effects on the host only after large amounts are secreted and reach the systemic circulation

A 67-year-old male presents with an intraabdominal abscess secondary to perforated sigmoid diverticulitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his intraabdominal abscess. a. Culture will likely reveal a solitary organism b. Both aerobic and anaerobic islets are encountered in 50% of specimens c. The most common aerobic islet will be likely E. coli and other gram-negative enteric bacilli d. The most common anaerobic islet will be a Bacteroides species

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Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Typically an intraabdominal infection results in perforation of a hollow viscus and the ensuing contamination of a normally sterile peritoneal cavity. The normal ... Bacteroides species (especially B. fragilis, Clostridium), and anaerobic cocci are most consistently isolated

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the immunoinflammatory response to shock? a. The anaphylactoxins, C3a and C5a, are products of activation of only the classical pathway of the compliment cascade b. Eicosanoids, such as prostaglandins are stored in platelets and endothelial cells and released in response to inflammatory stimuli c. Thromboxane and PGI2 have similar effects d. Platelet-activating factor can be released by both circulating and fixed tissue cells

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Wounds are classified according to the likelihood of bacterial contamination. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound classifications? a. A clean-contaminated wound would be that associated with an elective colon resection with adequate mechanical and antibiotic bowel preparation b. A contaminated wound would include a resection of obstructed bowel with gross spillage of intestinal contents c. In a clean wound, no viscus is entered d. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered for all clean-contaminated and contaminated wounds and selectively in patients involving a clean wound

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

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Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

Fatty acids are a major energy source for the body. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the use of fatty acids as an energy source? a. Fatty acids are stored in adipocytes as triglycerides b. Hormone-sensitive lipase is present only in adipose tissue c. Fatty acids are released into the circulation traveling freely in plasma d. Approximately 25% of total nonprotein caloric needs supplied via total parenteral nutrition should be in the form of fat

Description : Fatty acids are a major energy source for the body. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the use of fatty acids as an energy source? a. Fatty acids are stored in ... 25% of total nonprotein caloric needs supplied via total parenteral nutrition should be in the form of fat

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d In most tissues, fatty acids are readily oxidized for energy. They are especially important energy sources for the heart, liver and skeletal muscle. In ... administered to patients receiving total parenteral nutrition should comprise about 5-30% of total nonprotein caloric needs

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carrier proteins? a. Carrier proteins are distinguished by three types of mechanisms: carrier-type, channel-type, and conduction-type b. Conformational changes in the membrane protein occur between the conducting and the nonconducting states c. A channel-type carrier protein has two states—closed and open d. Carrier-type transport proteins are equally accessible from either side of the membrane

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carrier proteins? a. Carrier proteins are distinguished by three types of mechanisms: carrier-type, channel-type, and conduction-type b. ... and open d. Carrier-type transport proteins are equally accessible from either side of the membrane

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Most transport proteins appear to function as carriers, rather than channels. Important distinctions can be made between types of carrier proteins on the basis of transport kinetics. ... a carrier mechanism, the binding site is available only one side of the membrane at any instant

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Cytokines are low-molecular-weight polypeptides exerting a wide variety of biologic effects at both local and systemic levels. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the production and actions of cytokines? a. Cytokines are produced solely by macrophages b. Cytokines act only on other cells within the same local environment c. Cytokines may have both protective and deleterious effects on the host d. Each specific cytokine is produced by a single cell type

Description : Cytokines are low-molecular-weight polypeptides exerting a wide variety of biologic effects at both local and systemic levels. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the production and ... effects on the host d. Each specific cytokine is produced by a single cell type

Last Answer : Answer: c Macrophages, endothelial cells, lymphocytes, and other cells secrete a large number of different compounds, termed cytokines, that are most probably evolved for the purpose of ... host defenses, exerting both salutatory and deleterious effects on the host, has become increasingly evident

Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

Description : Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ... is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular operations

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Coagulation tests include prothrombin time (PT), which measures the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of fibrinogen production and is the most common method for ... more while for peripheral vascular applications, values of 250 seconds or greater are considered appropriate

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary benefit in critical illness c. Glutamine is included in most standard TPN solutions d. Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary ... . Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

Last Answer : Answer: b Glutamine is the most studied gut-specific nutrient. Glutamine has been classified as a nonessential or nutritionally dispensable amino acid since glutamine can be synthesized in adequate ... . In contrast to glutamine, short chain fatty acids are primary energy source for colonocytes

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of antibiotics in wound care? a. Systemic antibiotics are indicated for all open wounds b. Bacterial resistance can occur with systemic but not topical antibiotics c. An indication for systemic antibiotic administration is a granulation tissue bacterial count in excess of greater than 105 organisms/gram of tissue on quantitative analysis d. Silver sulfadiazine is useful only for the management of burns

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of antibiotics in wound care? a. Systemic antibiotics are indicated for all open wounds b. Bacterial resistance can occur with ... of tissue on quantitative analysis d. Silver sulfadiazine is useful only for the management of burns

Last Answer : Answer: c The role of antibiotics in wound care is controversial. All open wounds are colonized with bacteria. Only when surrounding tissue is invaded (cellulitis) are systemic antibiotics clearly ... of relevant drug-resistant plasmids in bacteria, and its low cost make it a good choice

Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

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Last Answer : Answer: c, d IL-6 is now recognized at the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Glucocorticoid hormones augment ... that generally inhibit the tissue destruction that is associated with the local initiation of inflammation

Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning antimicrobial classes? a. Penicillins and cephalosporins share the compound structure of a b-lactam ring which binds to bacterial division plate proteins b. Tetracyclines and macrolides such as erythromycin inhibit bacterial ribosomal activity and therefore protein synthesis c. Aminoglycosides act in a similar fashion to tetracyclines and therefore are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically

New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Description : New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Last Answer : Answer: e Selective gut decontamination involves the use of orally administered antibiotics that achieve a high intraluminal level directed against gram-negative aerobes and yeast, leaving ... but conclusive evidence that concurrent reduction of infection-related mortality occurs is not available

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the patient’s management? a. Feeding into the stomach results in stimulation of the biliary/pancreatic axis which is probably trophic for small bowel b. Gastric secretions will dilute the feedings increasing the risk of diarrhea c. The major risk in this patient is tracheobronchial aspiration d. Placement of the feeding catheter through the pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Description : A 17-year-old patient involved in an automobile accident is paralyzed with multiple peripheral extremity injuries. Nutritional support is instituted with a transnasal feeding catheter. Which of the ... pylorus into the first portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The use of transnasal feeding catheters for intragastric feeding or for duodenal intubation are popular adjuncts for providing nutritional support by the enteral route. The ... the fourth portion of the duodenum reduces the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feeding formulas

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Description : A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral ... use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of TPN on the GI tract? a. Patients receiving TPN have an accentuated systemic response to endotoxin challenge compared to enterally fed volunteers b. TPN can result in disruption of intestinal microflora c. In experimental models, bacterial translocation from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the cell function of phagocytosis? a. Phagocytosis is a mechanistically distinct process of endocytosis performed by special cells to take up larger particles such as bacteria or erythrocytes b. Lymphocytes are the primary blood cell involved with this process c. The process involves a coating of the cytoplasmic surface known as clathrin d. Phagocytosis is performed only by white blood cells and tissue macrophages

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the cell function of phagocytosis? a. Phagocytosis is a mechanistically distinct process of endocytosis performed by special cells to take ... known as clathrin d. Phagocytosis is performed only by white blood cells and tissue macrophages

Last Answer : Answer: a Phagocytosis is a specialized form of endocytosis by which large particles are internalized by specialized cells primarily macrophages and neutrophils. To be phagocytosed, particles ... the lumen of the thyroid follicle, thereby releasing the thyroid hormones, thyroxine triiodothyronine

Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis b. A major disadvantage of the peripheral technique is limited caloric delivery c. If total parenteral nutrition is required, access to the superior vena cava via the external jugular vein is the most suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Description : Which of the following statement(s) concerning intravenous nutritional support is/are true? a. Concentrations of glucose no higher than 5% should be used to avoid peripheral vein sclerosis ... suitable site d. Venous thrombosis is an uncommon complication for long-term central vein catheterization

Last Answer : Answer: b Although peripheral access can be used for intravenous nutrition, the major disadvantage of this technique is limited caloric delivery to meet catabolic demands within tolerated fluid ... studies that use phlebography or radionucleotide venography indicate the incidence is as high as 35%

There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning energy converting transport? a. The site of energy conversion and transport in the plasma membrane involves the phospholipid component b. The Na+-K++-ATPase derives energy from hydrolysis of extracellular ATP c. In some systems, energy inherent in the transmembrane ion gradient can be used to drive transport of a second species d. Examples of species transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Description : There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s ... transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The selectivity of the plasma membrane, although impressive, cannot account for the nonequilibrium composition of living cells. A cell can be maintained in a nonequilibrium state only by ... to drive the transport of a second species such as protons, calcium, amino acids, or glucose

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results in selective thrombolysis at the fibrin clot surface. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning agents used in thrombolytic therapy? a. Streptokinase is a bacterial protein which is antigenic in humans, resulting in allergic reactions in up to l5% of cases b. Tissue plasminogen activator acts directly on plasmin without an intermediate drug–plasmin complex c. The half-life of urokinase, streptokinase, and TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

Description : Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results ... TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Streptokinase is a bacterial protein produced by group C b-hemolytic streptococci. It is therefore antigenic in humans and can be associated with allergic reaction in ... one agent over the other. Streptokinase however, is markedly less expensive than either urokinase or TPA

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep muscular fascia c. An impaired immune system is a common factor predisposing to this condition d. The infection is usually polymicrobial e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep ... e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d, e Necrotizing fascitis is an uncommon infection of the deep and superficial fascia that is associated with mortality as high as 40% in many series. ... fulminant and is frequently associated with cellulitis, myositis, fascitis, and bacteremia with attendant high mortality

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection b. In a patient with a maximal metabolic rate secondary to trauma, the presence of infection will increase the rate further c. Metabolic rate increases at a rate of approximately 10% for each increase of 1°C in central temperature d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Description : Sepsis causes a marked metabolic response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the metabolic response to sepsis? a. Oxygen consumption is increased in the face of infection ... d. The extent of increase in oxygen consumption relates to the severity of the infection

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Oxygen consumption is usually elevated in the infected patient. The extent of this increase is related to the severity of the infection, with peak elevations reaching 50% ... suggest that the metabolic rate increases 10% to 13% for each elevation of 1°C in central temperature

Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and formation of a hemostatic plug. B. Interaction of tissue factor with factor VII circulating in the plasma. C. The production of thrombin via the coagulation cascade with conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

Description : Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and ... conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: Hemostasis requires the interaction of platelets with the exposed subendothelial structures at the site of injury followed by aggregation of more platelets in that area. ... form a stable clot that incorporates the platelet plug and fibrin thrombus into a stable clot

Which of the following cells or blood elements play a role in the initial phases of wound healing? a. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) b. Platelets c. Monocytes d. Lymphocytes

Description : Which of the following cells or blood elements play a role in the initial phases of wound healing? a. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) b. Platelets c. Monocytes d. Lymphocytes

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Shortly after the initial injury, the wound is full of debris which is cleared over the next several days by recruited and activated phagocytic cells. ... in the initial hemostatic process as well as releasing chemotactic factors and factors leading to fibroblast proliferation