The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep muscular fascia c. An impaired immune system is a common factor predisposing to this condition d. The infection is usually polymicrobial e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep muscular fascia c. An impaired immune system is a common factor predisposing to this condition d. The infection is usually polymicrobial e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply
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Answer: a, c, d, e  Necrotizing fascitis is an uncommon infection of the deep and superficial fascia that is associated with mortality as high as 40% in many series. Although many underlying disease processes predispose patients to necrotizing fascitis, three common factors are almost invariably present: 1) impairment of the immune system; 2) compromise of fascial blood supply, and 3) the presence of microorganisms that are able to proliferate within this environment. Infections of this type are usually polymicrobial in nature, with gram-positive organisms such as staphylococci and streptococci, gram-negative enteric bacteria, and gram-negative anaerobic being frequently identified. These polymicrobial cultural results are assuredly indicative of the occurrence of a synergistic process, perhaps in large part accounting for the severity of these infections. Some microorganisms possess virulence factors that, in conjunction with an underlying host predisposition, allow this disease process to occur without dependence on other bacteria. Examples of such bacteria include Clostridium, Pseudomonas, and Aeromonas. In these patients, the process is often fulminant and is frequently associated with cellulitis, myositis, fascitis, and bacteremia with attendant high mortality
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A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

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A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the cell function of phagocytosis? a. Phagocytosis is a mechanistically distinct process of endocytosis performed by special cells to take up larger particles such as bacteria or erythrocytes b. Lymphocytes are the primary blood cell involved with this process c. The process involves a coating of the cytoplasmic surface known as clathrin d. Phagocytosis is performed only by white blood cells and tissue macrophages

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The neurohormonal arm of the stress response is well defined. Less is known about the inflammatory arm mediated primarily by cytokines. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this arm of the surgical stress response? a. Cytokines primarily work locally via direct cell-to-cell communication b. Cytokines are never detectable in the systemic bloodstream c. Cytokines are produced only by immune cells attracted to the site of injury d. Cytokine release may stimulate the release of other cytokines leading to an important cascade of events

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the assessment of protein reserve? a. Conventional serum proteins such as albumin and globulin are early indicators of malnutrition b. The total lymphocyte count reflects immune status and not nutrition c. Antigen skin testing reflects patient immunity and not nutrition d. Measurement of urea excretion in urine can be used as a measurement of protein breakdown

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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages may become activated and secrete cytokines c. Macrophages serve as phagocytic cells in the tissues but not within the bloodstream d. Polymorphonucleocytes (PMNS) are normally present in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

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A 67-year-old male presents with an intraabdominal abscess secondary to perforated sigmoid diverticulitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his intraabdominal abscess. a. Culture will likely reveal a solitary organism b. Both aerobic and anaerobic islets are encountered in 50% of specimens c. The most common aerobic islet will be likely E. coli and other gram-negative enteric bacilli d. The most common anaerobic islet will be a Bacteroides species

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An important step in protein synthesis is transcription. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this process? a. The first step in gene transcription involves separating the double helix of DNA by an enzyme known as DNA polymerase b. The initial product of DNA transcription is called heterogeneous nuclear RNA which codes directly for proteins c. After processing is complete, the mRNA is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm d. Only one protein can be produced from an initial mRNA strand

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the capillaries and worsens the condition c. Mannitol is contraindicated as a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c The introduction of microorganisms into the normally sterile peritoneal environment invoke several potent specialized host antimicrobial defense mechanisms. Bacterial clearance, ... the contaminated enteric contents walled off, preventing continued soilage of the peritoneal cavity

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for both antigen and antibody detection b. Southern, northern, and western immunoblot techniques are used to detect DNA, RNA, or proteins, respectively c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a sensitive assay used to detect small amounts of microbial DNA, thus detecting infection at its early stages d. Infectious agents currently detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway

There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning energy converting transport? a. The site of energy conversion and transport in the plasma membrane involves the phospholipid component b. The Na+-K++-ATPase derives energy from hydrolysis of extracellular ATP c. In some systems, energy inherent in the transmembrane ion gradient can be used to drive transport of a second species d. Examples of species transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Description : There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s ... transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The selectivity of the plasma membrane, although impressive, cannot account for the nonequilibrium composition of living cells. A cell can be maintained in a nonequilibrium state only by ... to drive the transport of a second species such as protons, calcium, amino acids, or glucose

Cell regulation can be thought of as the effector side of cell communication. Most commonly cell regulation occurs by means of extracellular chemical messengers. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning these messengers? a. Paracrine regulation involves a messenger which is produced and acts systemically b. The extracellular signal or stimulus is received by a receptor on or in the target cell c. Neurocrine regulation depends on a physical connection between the neuron and the target cell d. Most hormones, local mediators, and neurotransmitters readily cross the cell plasma membrane

Description : Cell regulation can be thought of as the effector side of cell communication. Most commonly cell regulation occurs by means of extracellular chemical messengers. Which of the following statement(s ... d. Most hormones, local mediators, and neurotransmitters readily cross the cell plasma membrane

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Depending on how the extracellular messenger arrives, cell regulation can be classified as paracrine, endocrine, or neurocrine. In paracrine regulation, a chemical messenger ... , local mediators, and neurotransmitters are water-soluble and cannot readily cross the plasma membrane

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound contraction? a. Wound contraction accounts for similar rates of reduction of wound size regardless of their location b. The fibroblast, at the cellular level, is the primary force driving wound contraction c. Excessive wound contraction, when occurring over a joint, may lead to disability d. Actin microfillaments are found in fibroblasts and may play a role in wound contracture

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning wound contraction? a. Wound contraction accounts for similar rates of reduction of wound size regardless of their location b. The fibroblast ... d. Actin microfillaments are found in fibroblasts and may play a role in wound contracture

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Wound contraction is an important event which contrasts healing open wounds and closed incisions. When open wounds contract, the surrounding skin is pulled over the open wound ... number in contracting wounds and are felt to play an active role in the process of wound contraction

In contrast to a patient undergoing an elective operation, which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning a patient who has suffered a multiple trauma? a. Basal metabolic rates are similar b. The patient is highly sensitive to insulin c. Utilization of the amino acids, glutamine and alanine, is similar to their composition in skeletal muscle d. Fat and protein stores are rapidly depleted

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Last Answer : Answer: b, d The degree of hypermetabolism is generally related to the severity of injury. Patients with long-bone fractures have a 15-25% increase in metabolic rate, whereas metabolic ... in injured subjects, if unfed, severely injured patients rapidly deplete their fat and protein stores

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning excessive scarring processes? a. Keloids occur randomly regardless of gender or race b. Hypertrophic scars and keloid are histologically different c. Keloids tend to develop early and hypertrophic scars late after the surgical injury d. Simple reexcision and closure of a hypertrophic scar can be useful in certain situations such as a wound closed by secondary intention

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning excessive scarring processes? a. Keloids occur randomly regardless of gender or race b. Hypertrophic scars and keloid are histologically different ... scar can be useful in certain situations such as a wound closed by secondary intention

Last Answer : Answer: d True keloids are uncommon and occur predominantly in dark skinned people with a genetic predisposition for keloid formation. In most cases, the gene appears to be ... subside. Hypertrophic scars usually develop within the first month after wounding and often subside gradually

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been shown to reduce nosocomial pneumonias and to improve mortality rates. B. Enteral nutrition, as compared with parenteral nutrition, preserves the villus architecture of the gut. C. Gut dysfunction may be an effect of shock, but it may also contribute to the development of MODS by the mechanism of bacterial translocation. D. As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Description : Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been ... As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: The gut has a vital role in the pathophysiology of shock. The splanchnic circulation is very vulnerable to the circulatory redistribution that occurs in shock, thus, gut ... , enteral feeding is more cost effective and is associated with a lower rate of septic morbidity

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily allowance for protein may triple in critically ill patients c. Urinary nitrogen losses will approach 0 in the face of protein starvation d. Negative nitrogen balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily ... balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Last Answer : Answer: b, d About 15% of the total body weight is made up of proteins, about half of which are intracellular and half extracellular. In man and other animals, dietary protein is the source of ... is exceeded by the amount of nitrogen lost in the urine, stool, skin, wounds, and fistula drainage

Which of the following statement(s) describe the effects of aging on wound healing? a. A finer, more cosmetic scar might be expected b. In vitro studies demonstrate decreased proliferative potential of fibroblasts and epithelial cells c. Skin sutures should be left in for a longer period of time d. Wound infection occurs more frequently in elderly patients due to diminished ability to fight infection

Description : Which of the following statement(s) describe the effects of aging on wound healing? a. A finer, more cosmetic scar might be expected b. In vitro studies demonstrate decreased proliferative ... . Wound infection occurs more frequently in elderly patients due to diminished ability to fight infection

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c There are important age-dependent aspects of wound healing. The elderly heal more slowly and with less scarring. There is a gradual attenuation of the inflammatory ... the sutures. There is no evidence to suggest that wound infections occur more commonly in elderly patients

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given several days prior to elective surgery b. The half-life of factor VIII concentrates is less than 24 hours c. A dose of 40–50 IU/kg of factor VIII concentrate should be given prior to the planned surgical procedure d. Factor VIII concentration administration should be given for the first 24 hours after surgery but may then be stopped if no abnormal bleeding has been observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The patient likely is suffering from hypovolemic shock and should respond quickly to fluid resuscitation b. Beck’s triad will likely be an obvious indication of compressive cardiogenic shock due to pericardial tamponade c. Echocardiography is the most sensitive noninvasive approach for diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Description : A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his ... diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Last Answer : Answer: c Shock from cardiac compression occurs when external pressure on the heart impairs ventricular filling. Because ventricular filling is a function of venous return and myocardial compliance, ... sternotomy. Chest tube placement would not be appropriate as the sole treatment in this patient

The transport of proteins out of the cell is termed exocytosis. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this process? a. Secretory vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane b. The process can occur in either a constitutive or regulated process c. A regulated secretion is triggered by a stimulus, most likely a hormone or a neurotransmitter d. A decrease in cytoplasmic calcium occurs as part of the secretion process

Description : The transport of proteins out of the cell is termed exocytosis. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this process? a. Secretory vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane b. ... or a neurotransmitter d. A decrease in cytoplasmic calcium occurs as part of the secretion process

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Transport vesicles that bud off the Golgi network carry both material to be secreted from the cell and protein destined to become components of the plasma ... but may also involve generation of diacylglycerol or production of cyclic AMP which activate kinases or phosphatases

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as carbohydrate and half as fat b. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral feeds and is due to the high osmolarity of the carbohydrate components c. The hyperosmolar nature of parenteral fat solutions requires central venous administration d. Approximately 25–50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as ... -50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Most formulas for enteral feeding range from 1.0 to 2 cal/ml and include 3 to 7% protein. Most of the calories are supplied as glucose or sucrose, so that the solutions ... up to 25 to 50% of calories each day as fat emulsion may optimize the delivery of this caloric delivery

Which of the following area is known as the dangerous area of the scalp Options: 1) Skin 2) Superficial Fascia 3) Deep Fascia 4) Loose Areolar Tissue

Description : Which of the following area is known as the dangerous area of the scalp Options: 1) Skin 2) Superficial Fascia 3) Deep Fascia 4) Loose Areolar Tissue

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 4) Loose Areolar Tissue

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding